the nurse is working with a client who is preparing to discontinue the use of a sedative hypnotic medication which instruction should the nurse includ
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HESI RN

Mental Health HESI Quizlet

1. The client is preparing to discontinue the use of a sedative-hypnotic medication. Which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When discontinuing sedative-hypnotic medications, it is crucial to gradually taper them off to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because withdrawal symptoms can be severe, not always mild. Choice C is incorrect as increasing caffeine intake can exacerbate sleep disturbances. Choice D is incorrect because changes in sleep patterns are expected during discontinuation of sedative-hypnotic medications.

2. A male adult is admitted because of an acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. After transfer to the mental health unit, the client is told he has liver damage. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in the client’s discharge plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to include in the client’s discharge plan is to not take any over-the-counter medication. This is crucial because over-the-counter medications can potentially interact with the damaged liver and worsen the condition. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical in the context of liver damage from an acetaminophen overdose. While diet is important for overall health, specifically for liver damage, avoiding over-the-counter medications takes precedence. Calling the crisis hotline for loneliness and avoiding exposure to large crowds are important considerations but are not directly related to the client's liver damage from the acetaminophen overdose.

3. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse’s station in a literally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia. The client's symptoms of body contortion and feeling like a monster are indicative of acute dystonia, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone. Benztropine can help alleviate these acute dystonic reactions. Choice A is incorrect because changing the antipsychotic medication at this point is not indicated. Choice B is not appropriate as the client's symptoms are likely due to acute dystonia rather than muscle spasms. Choice C is also not the best course of action as the client needs immediate intervention for the acute dystonic reaction.

4. A male client who recently lost a loved one arrives at the mental health center and tells the nurse he is no longer interested in his usual activities and has not slept for several days. Which priority nursing problem should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for suicide. Considering the client's recent loss, lack of interest in activities, and sleep disturbances, the nurse should prioritize assessing and addressing the risk for suicide. This client is displaying warning signs such as loss of interest in usual activities and sleep disturbances, which are commonly associated with suicidal ideation. B: Sleep deprivation is not the priority issue in this scenario, as the client's lack of sleep is likely a symptom of a deeper emotional struggle. C: Situational low self-esteem and D: Social isolation may be concerns for this client but do not take precedence over the immediate risk of suicide, given the presented symptoms.

5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction. The presentation of stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign changes suggest an acute dystonic reaction, which is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage these acute dystonic reactions. Option A is incorrect because holding the medication without addressing the acute symptoms may lead to worsening of the condition. Option B is incorrect as wiping with cold water or alcohol does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Option D is incorrect because it mentions tardive dyskinesia, which is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements that occur with long-term antipsychotic use, not the acute dystonic reaction seen here.

Similar Questions

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Which factors tend to increase the difficulty of diagnosing young children who demonstrate behaviors associated with mental illness? Select all that apply.
During the admission assessment, a female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room. When the RN notes a discrepancy between the client’s verbal and nonverbal communication, what action should the RN take?
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