HESI RN
Adult Health 2 HESI Quizlet
1. A patient who has been receiving diuretic therapy is admitted to the emergency department with a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. The nurse should alert the healthcare provider immediately that the patient is on which medication?
- A. Oral digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily
- B. Ibuprofen (Motrin) 400 mg every 6 hours
- C. Metoprolol (Lopressor) 12.5 mg orally daily
- D. Lantus insulin 24 U subcutaneously every evening
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hypokalemia increases the risk for digoxin toxicity, which can lead to serious dysrhythmias. Therefore, with a low potassium level, the nurse should immediately alert the healthcare provider about the patient being on oral digoxin. Choices B, C, and D do not pose as much concern with the given potassium level. However, further assessment is still required for these medications.
2. The nurse is teaching the parent of a child newly diagnosed with a latex allergy. Which information by the parents indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. Rubber-free toys, such as wooden building blocks, are good choices for the child.
- B. Only foil balloons will be used for the child's birthday party.
- C. A diet of healthy fruits, such as bananas and kiwis, is best for the child.
- D. An epinephrine auto-injector will be on hand to treat allergic reactions.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Bananas and kiwis are foods that can cross-react with latex allergy, indicating that the parents need further teaching on managing latex allergies. Choices A, B, and D are correct as rubber-free toys, using foil balloons, and having an epinephrine auto-injector are appropriate measures to prevent and manage allergic reactions in a child with a latex allergy.
3. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with severe fatigue and confusion. Laboratory studies are done. Which laboratory value will require the most immediate action by the nurse?
- A. Arterial blood pH is 7.32.
- B. Serum calcium is 18 mg/dL.
- C. Serum potassium is 5.1 mEq/L
- D. Arterial oxygen saturation is 91%.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A serum calcium level of 18 mg/dL is significantly elevated, posing a high risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. Immediate action is required to initiate cardiac monitoring and notify the healthcare provider. While the abnormalities in arterial blood pH, serum potassium, and arterial oxygen saturation also need attention, they are not as immediately life-threatening as the critically high serum calcium level. Therefore, addressing the serum calcium level takes precedence in this scenario.
4. How should the nurse interpret the following arterial blood gas results for a patient who had a tracheostomy placed after a motor vehicle crash: pH 7.48, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 25 mEq/L?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient's pH of 7.48 indicates alkalosis, and the low PaCO2 of 32 mm Hg suggests a respiratory cause. The HCO3 level is normal, ruling out metabolic causes. Therefore, the correct interpretation is respiratory alkalosis. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the pH and PaCO2 values provided.
5. When caring for a patient with renal failure on a low phosphate diet, the nurse will inform unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to remove which food from the patient’s food tray?
- A. Grape juice
- B. Milk carton
- C. Mixed green salad
- D. Fried chicken breast
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Milk carton. Foods high in phosphate, like milk and other dairy products, are restricted on low-phosphate diets to manage renal failure. Green, leafy vegetables, high-fat foods, and fruits/juices are not high in phosphate and are not restricted. Therefore, grape juice, mixed green salad, and fried chicken breast do not need to be removed from the patient's food tray.
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