HESI RN
Mental Health HESI Quizlet
1. During the admission assessment of an underweight adolescent with depression on a psychiatric unit, the nurse finds a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dl. Which finding requires notification to the healthcare provider?
- A. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dl.
- B. BP of 110/70 mmHg.
- C. WBC of 10,000 mm³.
- D. Body mass index of 21.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dl is critically low, indicating hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Prompt notification to the healthcare provider is essential for immediate intervention. Choice B, a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, is within the normal range. Choice C, a white blood cell count of 10,000 mm³, is also within normal limits and is not a concerning finding in this context. Choice D, a body mass index of 21, may indicate being underweight but is not as urgent as addressing the critically low potassium level.
2. A mental health worker (MHW) is caring for a client with escalating aggressive behavior. Which action by the MHW warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Attempting to physically restrain the client.
- B. Telling the client to go to the quiet area of the unit.
- C. Using a loud voice to talk to the client.
- D. Remaining at a distance of 4 feet from the client.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Attempting to physically restrain the client. Physical restraint should only be performed by trained professionals in a safe manner to prevent harm to the client and staff. In this scenario, the mental health worker should not attempt physical restraint, as it can escalate the situation and potentially lead to harm. Choices B, C, and D do not pose an immediate risk and can be part of de-escalation strategies. Choice B suggests guiding the client to a quiet area, choice C involves using a loud voice for better communication, and choice D indicates maintaining a safe distance, which are appropriate interventions to manage escalating aggressive behavior.
3. Which therapeutic communication statement might a psychiatric-mental health registered nurse use when a patient's nursing diagnosis is altered thought processes?
- A. I know you say you hear voices, but I cannot hear them.
- B. Stop listening to the voices, they are NOT real.
- C. You say you hear voices, what are they telling you?
- D. Please tell the voices to leave you alone for now.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because it acknowledges the patient's experience of hearing voices, showing empathy and exploring the content of the hallucinations. This type of therapeutic communication encourages the patient to express their thoughts and feelings without judgment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they either deny the patient's experience, dismiss the hallucinations as not real, or suggest eliminating them, which can be perceived as invalidating the patient's feelings and experiences.
4. While sitting in the day room of the mental health unit, a male adolescent avoids eye contact, looks at the floor, and talks softly when interacting verbally with the RN. The two trade places, and the RN demonstrates the client's behaviors. What is the main goal of this therapeutic technique?
- A. Initiate a non-threatening conversation with the client.
- B. Dialog about the ineffectiveness of his interactions.
- C. Allow the client to identify the way he interacts.
- D. Discuss the client's feelings when he responds.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The main goal of the therapeutic technique described is to allow the client to identify the way he interacts. This technique helps promote self-awareness in the client by mirroring his behavior back to him, which can lead to insights about his own communication style. Option A is incorrect as the goal is not just to initiate conversation but to facilitate self-reflection. Option B is incorrect because the focus is not on discussing the ineffectiveness of the interactions but on self-awareness. Option D is incorrect as the primary aim is not to discuss the client's feelings but to help him recognize his interaction patterns.
5. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Decrease in manic episodes.
- B. Improvement in depressive symptoms.
- C. Reduction in anxiety symptoms.
- D. Increased sleep duration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.
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