HESI RN
Mental Health HESI Quizlet
1. During the admission assessment of an underweight adolescent with depression on a psychiatric unit, the nurse finds a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dl. Which finding requires notification to the healthcare provider?
- A. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dl.
- B. BP of 110/70 mmHg.
- C. WBC of 10,000 mm³.
- D. Body mass index of 21.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dl is critically low, indicating hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Prompt notification to the healthcare provider is essential for immediate intervention. Choice B, a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, is within the normal range. Choice C, a white blood cell count of 10,000 mm³, is also within normal limits and is not a concerning finding in this context. Choice D, a body mass index of 21, may indicate being underweight but is not as urgent as addressing the critically low potassium level.
2. A client who refuses antipsychotic medications disrupts group activities, talks with nonsensical words, and wanders into other clients' rooms. The nurse decides that the client needs constant observation based on which of these assessment findings?
- A. Wanders into clients' rooms.
- B. Refuses antipsychotic medication.
- C. Talks with nonsensical words.
- D. Disrupts group activities.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Disrupting group activities is a significant behavior that can pose risks to both the client and others. When combined with talking nonsensically and wandering into other clients' rooms, it indicates a need for constant observation to prevent harm or injury. Choices A, B, and C, although concerning, do not directly address the immediate safety concerns presented by disruptive behavior during group activities, which can lead to unpredictable situations and potential harm.
3. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?
- A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
- B. Administer a PRN sedative.
- C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
- D. Escort the client to his room.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.
4. A client with Bulimia and depression who is taking phenelzine (Nardil) 90 mg daily is admitted to an acute care hospital for uncontrolled hypertension. What dietary choices should the RN instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Pan-seared catfish.
- B. Pepperoni pizza.
- C. Deep-fried shrimp.
- D. Beef strips with gravy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is taking MAO inhibitors like phenelzine, foods containing tyramine should be avoided. Tyramine-rich foods can interact with MAO inhibitors and lead to a hypertensive crisis. Beef strips with gravy contain tyramine, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C do not contain high levels of tyramine and are not specifically contraindicated with MAO inhibitors.
5. A client on the mental health unit is becoming more agitated, shouting at the staff, and pacing in the hallway. When a PRN medication is offered, the client refuses the medication and defiantly sits on the floor in the middle of the unit hallway. What nursing intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Transport the client to the seclusion room.
- B. Quietly approach the client with additional staff members.
- C. Take other clients in the area to the client lounge.
- D. Administer medication to chemically restrain the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In situations where a client is agitated and refusing medication, a non-confrontational approach with additional staff can help de-escalate the situation and address the client's behavior safely. Transporting the client to the seclusion room (Choice A) should not be the initial intervention unless the client poses an immediate risk of harm to themselves or others. Taking other clients to the client lounge (Choice C) does not directly address the agitated client's behavior. Administering medication to chemically restrain the client (Choice D) should only be considered after other de-escalation attempts have been made and if there is a significant safety concern.
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