Nursing Elites

1. When changing the dressing for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted lacerations on the abdomen, which approach should the RN use?

• A. Provide detailed and thorough explanations while cleansing the wound.
• B. Perform the dressing change in a non-judgmental manner.
• C. Ask why the client cut their own abdomen in a non-threatening manner.
• D. Request assistance from another staff member for the dressing change.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct approach for the RN when changing the dressing for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted lacerations on the abdomen is to perform the dressing change in a non-judgmental manner. This approach helps maintain therapeutic rapport and respect for the client's situation. Choice A is incorrect because providing detailed and thorough explanations may not be as important as maintaining a non-judgmental attitude. Choice C is incorrect because asking why the client cut their own abdomen may come across as accusatory or threatening, which can be counterproductive in building trust. Choice D is incorrect because the RN should be equipped to handle the dressing change independently while ensuring a supportive and non-judgmental environment for the client.

2. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

3. A female client on a psychiatric unit is sweating profusely while vigorously doing push-ups and then running the length of the corridor several times before crashing into furniture in the sitting room. Picking herself up, she begins to toss chairs aside, looking for a red one to sit in. When another client objects to the disturbance, the client shouts, “I am the boss here. I do what I want.” Which nursing problem best supports these observations?

• A. Deficient diversional activity related to excess energy level.
• B. Disturbed personal identity related to grandiosity.
• C. Risk for activity intolerance related to hyperactivity.
• D. Risk for other-directed violence related to disruptive behaviors.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's behavior of engaging in disruptive and aggressive actions, as well as claiming authority over others in the setting, indicates a risk for other-directed violence. This behavior poses a potential threat to the safety of others in the environment. Choice A is incorrect as the client's behavior is not solely indicative of a lack of diversional activities but rather a more serious issue. Choice B is incorrect as the behavior described does not primarily reflect disturbances in personal identity but rather displays of power and aggression. Choice C is incorrect as the client's actions do not suggest an intolerance to activity but rather an excessive and potentially harmful level of hyperactivity.

4. The nurse accepts a transfer to the mental health unit and understands that the client is distractible and is exhibiting a decreased ability to concentrate. The nurse has only 15 minutes to talk with the client. To develop a treatment plan for this client, which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Motivation for treatment
• B. History of substance use
• C. Medication compliance
• D. Mental status examination

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A mental status examination is the most important assessment for the nurse to obtain in this scenario. It provides a comprehensive view of the client's current cognitive functioning, including their level of alertness, orientation, memory, attention, and thought process. Understanding the client's mental status is crucial for developing an appropriate treatment plan. The other options, such as motivation for treatment, history of substance use, and medication compliance, are important aspects to consider but may not directly address the client's current cognitive state and immediate treatment needs as effectively as a mental status examination.

5. A male client comes to the emergency center with an erection that will not resolve. The client reports that he is taking trazodone (Desyrel) for insomnia. Which information is most important for the nurse to ask this client?

• A. Have you taken any medication for erectile dysfunction?
• B. Are you experiencing any other sexual dysfunctions or problems?
• C. When was the last time you consumed alcohol?
• D. Do you have a history of angina or high blood pressure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most important question for the nurse to ask the client is whether he is experiencing any other sexual dysfunctions or problems. This inquiry is crucial as it can help in determining if the persistent erection is a side effect of trazodone. Asking about medication for erectile dysfunction (Choice A) may not provide relevant information in this case, as the focus is on the potential side effects of trazodone. Inquiring about the last time the client consumed alcohol (Choice C) is not directly related to the situation at hand. Questioning about a history of angina or high blood pressure (Choice D) is important for overall assessment but is not as directly relevant to the immediate concern of the persistent erection potentially caused by trazodone.

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