Nursing Elites

1. A woman brings her 48-year-old husband to the outpatient psychiatric unit and describes his behavior to the admitting nurse. She states that he has been sleepwalking, cannot remember who he is, and exhibits multiple personalities. The nurse knows that these behaviors are often associated with:

• A. Post-traumatic stress disorder.
• B. Panic disorder.
• C. Dissociative identity disorder.
• D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dissociative identity disorder. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is characterized by the presence of two or more distinct personality states or identities, along with memory gaps beyond ordinary forgetfulness. The description of the husband sleepwalking, not recognizing his identity, and exhibiting multiple personalities aligns with the symptoms of DID. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) (Choice A) involves re-experiencing traumatic events, panic disorder (Choice B) is characterized by recurrent panic attacks, and obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) (Choice D) involves obsessions and compulsions. These conditions do not typically present with the specific symptoms described in the scenario.

2. A female client is brought to the emergency department after police officers found her disoriented, disorganized, and confused. The nurse also determines that the client is homeless and slightly suspicious. This client’s treatment plan should include what priority problem?

• A. Self-care deficit.
• B. Disturbed sensory perception.
• C. Ineffective community coping.
• D. Acute confusion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Acute confusion.' In the given scenario, the client is disoriented, disorganized, and confused, indicating acute confusion. This is a priority issue to address for immediate safety and appropriate care. Option A, self-care deficit, is not the priority as the client's safety and mental status take precedence over self-care. Option B, disturbed sensory perception, is not applicable as the client's symptoms focus more on cognitive rather than sensory issues. Option C, ineffective community coping, is not the immediate concern as the client's cognitive state needs urgent attention to ensure her safety and well-being.

3. An older male client with schizophrenia is found smearing feces on the bathroom walls of the chronic mental health unit where he resides. What action should the RN implement?

• A. Explain that the feces belong in the toilet.
• B. Show the client how to clean the walls.
• C. Escort the client out of the bathroom.
• D. Assist the client to clean the walls.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Escorting the client out of the bathroom is the most appropriate action to take in this situation. This helps prevent further inappropriate behavior and maintains hygiene, while avoiding reinforcement of the behavior. Option A, explaining that the feces belong in the toilet, may not be effective as the behavior is likely a manifestation of the client's condition rather than a lack of understanding. Option B, showing the client how to clean the walls, may not address the underlying issue and could potentially reinforce the behavior. Option D, assisting the client to clean the walls, may also reinforce the behavior and is not the best approach to managing the situation.

4. The RN is providing education about strategies for a safety plan for a female client who is a victim of intimate partner violence. Which strategies should be included in the safety plan? (SOA)

• A. Purchase a gun for protection.
• B. Establish a code with family and friends to signal violence.
• C. Take a self-defense course focused on protection.
• D. Prepare a bag with extra clothes for self and children.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Establishing a code with family and friends is crucial in situations of intimate partner violence as it allows discreet communication for help without alerting the abuser. Having a pre-prepared bag with essentials like extra clothes is important to facilitate a quick exit if necessary. Purchasing a gun is not a recommended safety strategy as it can escalate violence and pose more danger. While taking a self-defense course focused on protection is beneficial, it is essential to avoid courses that emphasize retaliation, as they can increase the risk and escalate violence.

5. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?

• A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
• B. Administer a PRN sedative.
• C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.

Similar Questions