a woman brings her 48 year old husband to the outpatient psychiatric unit and describes his behavior to the admitting nurse she states that he has bee
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Mental Health HESI Quizlet

1. A woman brings her 48-year-old husband to the outpatient psychiatric unit and describes his behavior to the admitting nurse. She states that he has been sleepwalking, cannot remember who he is, and exhibits multiple personalities. The nurse knows that these behaviors are often associated with:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dissociative identity disorder. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is characterized by the presence of two or more distinct personality states or identities, along with memory gaps beyond ordinary forgetfulness. The description of the husband sleepwalking, not recognizing his identity, and exhibiting multiple personalities aligns with the symptoms of DID. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) (Choice A) involves re-experiencing traumatic events, panic disorder (Choice B) is characterized by recurrent panic attacks, and obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) (Choice D) involves obsessions and compulsions. These conditions do not typically present with the specific symptoms described in the scenario.

2. A client with postpartum depression receives a prescription for sertraline (Zoloft). What information is most important to include in client teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most critical information to include in client teaching for a client with postpartum depression starting sertraline (Zoloft) is to contact the healthcare provider immediately if suicidal thoughts occur. This is vital for the client's safety as antidepressants, including sertraline, can sometimes increase the risk of suicidal thoughts, especially at the start of treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not the most crucial information in this scenario. Choice A about avoiding foods high in tyramine is not directly related to sertraline use. Choice C about increasing activity level is important but not as critical as addressing suicidal ideation. Choice D about muscle stiffness is a potential side effect of sertraline but is not as urgent as monitoring for suicidal thoughts.

3. A young adult male is hospitalized due to depression and an attempted suicide. The client reports that he lost his job and was angry with his employer for firing him when he took an overdose of pain medications. Which behavior best indicates to the nurse that his condition is improving?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best indicator of improvement in a client with depression is initiating interactions with others. This behavior demonstrates that the client is becoming less withdrawn and more self-directed, showing an improvement in social engagement and coping mechanisms. Choice B, describing anger verbally, may show some progress in emotional expression but does not necessarily indicate overall improvement in depression. Choice C, participating in a job search with a social worker, may be positive but does not directly address social interactions, which are crucial for improving depression. Choice D, denying plans to harm himself or others, is important for safety but does not directly reflect improvement in the client's social functioning or coping skills.

4. A client with anorexia nervosa has a body mass index (BMI) of 16.5 and has been diagnosed with bradycardia. Which of the following findings should the RN be most concerned about?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with anorexia nervosa and bradycardia, monitoring for ECG changes is crucial as these changes may indicate potentially life-threatening cardiac complications. While other findings like low body temperature, bradycardia, and serum potassium levels are concerning, ECG changes specifically reflect the impact of bradycardia on the heart's electrical activity and should be the priority for the nurse to assess and address.

5. A male client tells the RN that he does not want to take the atypical antipsychotic drug, olanzapine (Zyprexa), because of the side effects he experienced when he took it previously. Which statement is best for the RN to provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to address the client's concerns about the side effects of the medication. By acknowledging the side effects and reassuring the client that they are manageable, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their treatment. This approach fosters trust between the client and the healthcare provider, promotes open communication, and supports treatment adherence. Choices B and D are not appropriate as they do not address the client's specific concern about the side effects or offer constructive support. Choice C is premature as switching medications should be considered after exploring ways to manage the side effects of the current medication.

Similar Questions

During an admission assessment and interview, which channels of information communication should the healthcare professional be monitoring? Select all that apply.
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The RN on the evening shift receives a report that a client is scheduled for electroconvulsive treatment (ECT) in the morning. Which intervention should the RN implement the evening before the scheduled ECT?
An older male client with schizophrenia is found smearing feces on the bathroom walls of the chronic mental health unit where he resides. What action should the RN implement?
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