Nursing Elites

1. During an admission assessment and interview, which channels of information communication should the healthcare professional be monitoring? Select all that apply.

• A. Auditory
• B. Visual
• C. Written
• D. Tactile

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an admission assessment and interview, healthcare professionals should monitor auditory, visual, and non-verbal cues. Auditory communication involves listening to the patient's spoken words, tone of voice, and any other sounds they make. Visual communication includes observing the patient's facial expressions, body language, and gestures. Written communication, such as forms or notes, may also provide valuable information. Tactile communication pertains to touch, which is not typically utilized during an admission interview setting. While all channels of communication are important, in this context, auditory cues are particularly crucial for gathering verbal information during the assessment process, making choice A the correct answer. Visual cues and written information are also significant but may not be as critical as auditory cues during an interview. Tactile communication is generally not a primary channel used during a standard admission assessment and interview, hence it is not a key focus in this scenario.

2. An adolescent with anorexia nervosa is undergoing nutritional therapy. Which finding best indicates that the client is making progress in treatment?

• A. Client gains 2 pounds in a week.
• B. Client describes a positive body image.
• C. Client engages in recreational activities.
• D. Client begins to talk about future goals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight gain is a crucial indicator of progress in the treatment of anorexia nervosa. In individuals with anorexia, restoring and maintaining a healthy weight is a primary goal to address the underlying nutritional deficiencies and health complications associated with the disorder. While choices B, C, and D are positive developments in the client's overall well-being and recovery journey, they are not as directly linked to the core issue of nutritional rehabilitation in anorexia nervosa. Describing a positive body image, engaging in recreational activities, and talking about future goals are important aspects of psychological and emotional recovery, but weight gain is a more immediate and objective measure of progress in treating anorexia nervosa.

3. An elderly client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. Which assessment finding is most concerning for the nurse?

• A. Weight loss of 5 pounds in one week.
• B. Lack of interest in previously enjoyed activities.
• C. Disorganized speech and thought processes.
• D. Severe fatigue and low energy levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an elderly client with major depressive disorder, disorganized speech and thought processes are the most concerning assessment findings for the nurse. These symptoms can suggest a more severe condition such as psychosis or cognitive impairment, which require immediate attention and intervention. While weight loss, lack of interest in activities, severe fatigue, and low energy levels are common symptoms of major depressive disorder, they do not pose an immediate risk as disorganized speech and thought processes do. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize addressing the disorganized speech and thought processes to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.

4. A client with Bulimia and depression who is taking phenelzine (Nardil) 90 mg daily is admitted to an acute care hospital for uncontrolled hypertension. What dietary choices should the RN instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Pan-seared catfish.
• B. Pepperoni pizza.
• C. Deep-fried shrimp.
• D. Beef strips with gravy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is taking MAO inhibitors like phenelzine, foods containing tyramine should be avoided. Tyramine-rich foods can interact with MAO inhibitors and lead to a hypertensive crisis. Beef strips with gravy contain tyramine, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C do not contain high levels of tyramine and are not specifically contraindicated with MAO inhibitors.

5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select all that apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction. The presentation of stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign changes suggest an acute dystonic reaction, which is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage these acute dystonic reactions. Option A is incorrect because holding the medication without addressing the acute symptoms may lead to worsening of the condition. Option B is incorrect as wiping with cold water or alcohol does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Option D is incorrect because it mentions tardive dyskinesia, which is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements that occur with long-term antipsychotic use, not the acute dystonic reaction seen here.

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