a mental health worker is caring for a client with escalating aggressive behavior which action by the mental health worker warrants immediate interven
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Quizlet HESI Mental Health

1. A mental health worker is caring for a client with escalating aggressive behavior. Which action by the mental health worker warrants immediate intervention by the RN?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Attempting to physically restrain the client without proper protocol and preparation can escalate the situation. This can lead to increased agitation and aggression in the client, potentially putting both the client and the mental health worker at risk. Remaining at a distance, directing the client to a quiet area, or using a loud voice are all strategies that can be used to de-escalate the situation and ensure safety without resorting to physical intervention. Therefore, the immediate intervention is needed when the mental health worker attempts to physically restrain the client. Option B, remaining at a distance, is a safe practice to ensure personal safety. Option C, directing the client to a quiet area, is a de-escalation technique to create a calmer environment. Option D, using a loud voice, may be necessary to establish boundaries and ensure the client can hear instructions clearly.

2. The RN is admitting a male client who takes lithium carbonate (Eskalith) twice a day. Which information should the RN report to the HCP immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are signs of potential lithium toxicity, which is a serious condition requiring immediate attention. These symptoms can indicate a dangerous level of lithium in the body that can lead to severe complications. Short-term memory loss (A), five-pound weight gain (B), and decreased affect (C) are important to monitor but are not as immediately concerning as symptoms of potential toxicity like nausea and vomiting.

3. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is receiving a new prescription for fluoxetine (Prozac). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fluoxetine, an SSRI, can help manage symptoms of OCD by assisting in controlling compulsive behaviors rather than directly reducing anxiety. The improvement in symptoms usually occurs over a few weeks. Choice A is incorrect as it provides a timeframe for anxiety improvement, which is not the primary goal of fluoxetine in OCD treatment. Choice C is incorrect as routine blood tests are not typically required with fluoxetine. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding tyramine-containing foods is more relevant for MAOIs, not SSRIs like fluoxetine.

4. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is struggling with flashbacks and nightmares. Which therapeutic approach should the nurse include in the care plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) experiencing flashbacks and nightmares would benefit from cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) in the care plan. CBT is an evidence-based therapeutic approach that focuses on identifying and changing negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with PTSD symptoms. This helps the client learn coping strategies to manage distressing symptoms like flashbacks and nightmares.\nIncorrect Choices Rationale: B) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is not indicated for PTSD and is typically used for severe depression that has not responded to other treatments. C) Medication management alone may not address the underlying cognitive and behavioral aspects of PTSD. D) Relaxation training and mindfulness can be helpful as adjunctive therapies but may not be as effective as CBT in specifically targeting and modifying PTSD symptoms.

5. A male client who recently lost a loved one arrives at the mental health center and tells the nurse he is no longer interested in his usual activities and has not slept for several days. Which priority nursing problem should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for suicide. Considering the client's recent loss, lack of interest in activities, and sleep disturbances, the nurse should prioritize assessing and addressing the risk for suicide. This client is displaying warning signs such as loss of interest in usual activities and sleep disturbances, which are commonly associated with suicidal ideation. B: Sleep deprivation is not the priority issue in this scenario, as the client's lack of sleep is likely a symptom of a deeper emotional struggle. C: Situational low self-esteem and D: Social isolation may be concerns for this client but do not take precedence over the immediate risk of suicide, given the presented symptoms.

Similar Questions

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