HESI RN
Quizlet Mental Health HESI
1. The nurse completes an assessment of a client who is experiencing intimate partner violence (IPV). Which finding of the injuries should the nurse include in the documentation?
- A. The client’s significant other’s statement.
- B. Photographs.
- C. General description.
- D. A summary of the client’s feelings.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of intimate partner violence (IPV), documenting injuries is essential for legal and medical purposes. Photographs provide concrete and objective evidence of the injuries, leaving no room for interpretation or doubt. This visual documentation can be crucial in legal proceedings and serve as a critical component in ensuring the safety and well-being of the client. The significant other's statement (Choice A) may not accurately reflect the client's injuries and could be biased. A general description (Choice C) lacks the specificity and objectivity that photographs offer. Summarizing the client's feelings (Choice D) is important for emotional support but does not provide the concrete evidence needed in documenting IPV cases.
2. A male client with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that he needs to 'make some deals so that he can improve his retirement savings.' Based on this information, which client outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Delay business decisions until his mania subsides.
- B. Identify the feelings associated with his behaviors.
- C. Seek legal counsel when making business decisions.
- D. Describe why he is feeling fearful about his finances.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In individuals with bipolar disorder experiencing mania, impulsivity and poor judgment are common. Delaying business decisions until the mania subsides is crucial to prevent impulsive and potentially harmful financial choices. Choice B, identifying feelings associated with behaviors, may be important but does not directly address the immediate need to prevent risky financial decisions. Seeking legal counsel (Choice C) may be appropriate in some situations but is not the priority in managing acute mania. Describing why he feels fearful about finances (Choice D) is relevant for understanding emotions but does not address the immediate risk of impulsive financial actions during mania.
3. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is exhibiting symptoms of mania. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
- B. Provide a calm and structured environment.
- C. Limit stimulation and set firm limits on behavior.
- D. Promote self-care and hygiene practices.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder is experiencing symptoms of mania, the most appropriate intervention for the nurse is to limit stimulation and set firm limits on behavior. This approach helps in managing the manic episode by preventing further escalation. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice A) may not be effective during the acute phase of mania, as the client may have difficulty focusing or following group discussions. Providing a calm and structured environment (Choice B) is beneficial, but setting firm limits is crucial to managing the impulsivity and risky behaviors associated with mania. Promoting self-care practices (Choice D) is important, but during a manic episode, setting limits and reducing stimuli take precedence over hygiene practices.
4. Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a 'moody child' with an onset of odd behavior around age 14, which caused him to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert's early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:
- A. Favorable with medication
- B. In the relapse stage
- C. Improvable with psychosocial interventions
- D. To have a less positive outcome
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In cases of early and slow onset of schizophrenia, the prognosis is generally less positive. This means that the outlook for individuals like Gilbert, who showed signs of schizophrenia at a young age, is often poorer. Option A is incorrect because while medication can help manage symptoms, the overall prognosis is still less favorable. Option B is incorrect since relapse stage typically refers to a period of worsening symptoms after initial improvement. Option C is incorrect because while psychosocial interventions can be beneficial, the underlying early and slow onset of schizophrenia indicates a less positive outcome.
5. A client is agitated and physically aggressive. What action should the RN take first?
- A. Calmly inform the client that they will be placed in seclusion if they do not calm down.
- B. Discuss with the client the reasons for their agitation and aggression.
- C. Tell the client that physical aggression is not acceptable and must stop.
- D. Seek assistance from other staff members and follow the facility’s protocol.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a situation where a client is agitated and physically aggressive, the priority for the RN is to ensure the safety of the client and others. Seeking assistance from other staff members is crucial as it allows for a prompt response to manage the situation effectively and according to the facility’s protocol. Choices A, B, and C do not address the immediate need for safety or involve the collaboration of other staff members, which is essential in handling aggressive behaviors in a healthcare setting.
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