Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the mental health unit and reports taking extra antianxiety medication because, “I’m so stressed out. I just wanted to go sleep.” The nurse should plan one-on-one observation of the client based on which statement?

• A. What should I do? Nothing seems to help.
• B. I have been so tired lately and needed to sleep.
• C. I really think that I don’t need to be here.
• D. I don’t want to talk. Nothing matters anymore.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's statement of not wanting to talk and feeling that nothing matters anymore is indicative of severe depression or a risk for self-harm. This warrants immediate attention and one-on-one observation to ensure the client's safety. Choices A, B, and C do not express the same level of concerning behavior and do not imply an immediate risk to the client's well-being.

2. A middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder suffers from psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and lack of motivation. Which intervention is likely to be most effective in returning this client to a normal level of functioning?

• A. Provide education on methods to enhance sleep.
• B. Teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities.
• C. Suggest that the client develop a list of pleasurable activities.
• D. Encourage the client to exercise.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities is the most effective intervention in this scenario. This intervention helps address psychomotor retardation and enhances motivation and functioning. By structuring the client's day, it can provide a sense of purpose, routine, and accomplishment. Option A, providing education on methods to enhance sleep, may be helpful but does not directly address the client's overall functioning. Option C, suggesting the client develop a list of pleasurable activities, may provide temporary relief but may not address the core symptoms of major depressive disorder. Option D, encouraging the client to exercise, can be beneficial, but in this case, addressing the lack of structure and motivation through a daily plan is more appropriate.

3. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric inpatient unit with a bandaged flesh wound after attempting to shoot himself. He was divorced one year ago, lost his job four months ago, and suffered a breakup of his current relationship last week. What is the most likely source of this client’s current feelings of depression?

• A. Feelings of frustration.
• B. A sense of loss.
• C. Poor self-esteem.
• D. A lack of intimate relationships.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's recent history of divorce, job loss, and breakup of a current relationship indicates a series of significant losses. These losses are likely the primary source of his feelings of depression, leading to a sense of loss. While feelings of frustration (choice A) and poor self-esteem (choice C) could be contributing factors, the immediate trigger for his current emotional state appears to be the series of losses. A lack of intimate relationships (choice D) may be a consequence of the client's depressive symptoms rather than the root cause in this scenario.

4. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Decrease in manic episodes.
• B. Improvement in depressive symptoms.
• C. Reduction in anxiety symptoms.
• D. Increased sleep duration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.

5. After surgery, a male client with antisocial personality disorder frequently requests a specific nurse be assigned to his care and becomes belligerent when another nurse is assigned. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Reassure the client that his request will be met whenever possible.
• B. Advise the client that assignments are not based on client requests.
• C. Ask the client to explain why he constantly requests the nurse.
• D. Encourage the client to verbalize his feelings about the nurse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse is to advise the client that assignments are not based on client requests. Clients with antisocial personality disorder may attempt to manipulate situations to their advantage. By setting clear boundaries and explaining that assignments are not based on client preferences, the nurse helps prevent manipulation and maintains a professional approach to care. Reassuring the client about his requests (Choice A) may encourage the inappropriate behavior to continue. Asking the client to explain his requests (Choice C) may further fuel the manipulation by providing an opportunity for the client to justify his actions. Encouraging the client to verbalize feelings (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue of manipulating the assignment process and may inadvertently reinforce the behavior.

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