Nursing Elites

1. A client who has agoraphobia (a fear of crowds) is beginning desensitization with the therapist, and the RN is reinforcing the process. Which intervention has the highest priority for this client’s plan of care?

• A. Encourage substitution of positive thoughts for negative ones.
• B. Establish trust by providing a calm, safe environment.
• C. Progressively expose the client to larger crowds.
• D. Encourage deep breathing when anxiety escalates in a crowd.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Establishing trust and providing a calm, safe environment is crucial when working with clients with agoraphobia undergoing desensitization therapy. This approach helps build a foundation of safety and security, allowing the client to feel more comfortable and supported during the exposure process. Encouraging positive thoughts (choice A) is important, but ensuring a safe environment takes precedence. Progressively exposing the client to larger crowds (choice C) should be done gradually and in a controlled manner; rushing this process can be overwhelming and counterproductive. Encouraging deep breathing (choice D) is a helpful coping mechanism, but creating a safe and trusting environment is the initial priority to facilitate successful desensitization therapy.

2. Which statement made by a patient prescribed bupropion (Wellbutrin) demonstrates that the medication education the patient received was effective? Select all that apply.

• A. I hope Wellbutrin will help my depression and also help me to finally quit smoking.
• B. I'm happy to hear that I won't need to worry too much about weight gain.
• C. It's okay to take Wellbutrin since I haven't had a seizure in 6 months.
• D. I need to be careful about driving since the medication could make me drowsy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer. The patient expressing a desire for Wellbutrin to address both depression and smoking cessation indicates an understanding of the medication's dual benefits. This demonstrates effective medication education as the patient comprehends the drug's purposes. Choice B is incorrect because weight gain is a common side effect of bupropion, so the statement contradicts this fact. Choice C is incorrect as a history of seizures is a contraindication for bupropion, so this statement shows a misunderstanding of the medication's safety profile. Choice D is incorrect because bupropion is not typically associated with sedation, so the concern about drowsiness is not directly related to this medication.

3. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

4. A client with an eating disorder is being treated in a behavioral health unit. Which behavior would the nurse expect to see if the client is responding positively to the treatment?

• A. Adherence to the treatment plan and increased self-care activities.
• B. Increased isolation from others.
• C. Frequent complaining about treatment procedures.
• D. Refusal to eat meals provided by the unit.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive response to treatment for a client with an eating disorder is indicated by adherence to the treatment plan and an increase in self-care activities. These behaviors show that the client is actively engaging in their treatment and taking steps towards recovery. Option B, increased isolation from others, is not indicative of a positive response to treatment as it may suggest withdrawal or avoidance. Option C, frequent complaining about treatment procedures, is not a behavior that signifies a positive response; it may indicate dissatisfaction or discomfort with the treatment. Option D, refusal to eat meals provided by the unit, is also not a positive response as it could suggest continued resistance to treatment and potential worsening of symptoms.

5. What should the nurse initially assess when a high school girl reveals engaging in self-induced vomiting as a weight-control measure?

• A. National percentile of weight and height.
• B. Frequency of bingeing and purging behaviors.
• C. Perceptions of family and social relationships.
• D. School grades and extracurricular activities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the frequency of bingeing and purging behaviors. This assessment is crucial in understanding the severity of the eating disorder and developing an appropriate treatment plan. Options A, C, and D are not the initial priority when dealing with a student engaging in harmful behaviors related to eating disorders. While weight and height, family relationships, and academic performance are important aspects to consider, the immediate focus should be on evaluating the behaviors directly linked to the reported issue.

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