Nursing Elites

1. A female client on a psychiatric unit is sweating profusely while vigorously doing push-ups and then running the length of the corridor several times before crashing into furniture in the sitting room. Picking herself up, she begins to verbally attack other clients. What intervention is most appropriate for the RN to use to manage the client’s behavior?

• A. Assist the client to a safe area to avoid injury.
• B. Establish clear and firm limits with the client.
• C. Offer medication to help calm the client down.
• D. Speak with the client in a calm, non-threatening manner.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client to a safe area is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. This action helps prevent injury to the client and others while allowing for de-escalation in a controlled environment. While establishing clear and firm limits (Choice B) may be necessary in some situations, the immediate priority here is safety. Offering medication (Choice C) should not be the first response unless the situation escalates further and poses a risk to the client or others. Speaking with the client in a calm, non-threatening manner (Choice D) may not be effective when the client is in an agitated state and engaging in risky behavior.

2. Narcan was administered to an adult client following a suicide attempt with an overdose of hydrocodone bitartrate (Vicodin). Within 15 minutes, the client is alert and oriented. In planning nursing care, which intervention has the highest priority at this time?

• A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• B. Obtain the client’s serum Vicodin level.
• C. Observe the client for further narcotic effects.
• D. Determine the client’s reason for attempting suicide.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing the client for further narcotic effects is the priority at this time. It is crucial to monitor the client closely to prevent a relapse of symptoms or potential complications from the overdose. Encouraging fluid intake is important for overall health but not the priority after an overdose. Obtaining serum Vicodin levels may be needed later but does not address the immediate need to monitor for ongoing effects. Determining the reason for the suicide attempt is vital for psychological assessment but should come after ensuring the client's physical stability.

3. A woman brings her 48-year-old husband to the outpatient psychiatric unit and describes his behavior to the admitting nurse. She states that he has been sleepwalking, cannot remember who he is, and exhibits multiple personalities. The nurse knows that these behaviors are often associated with:

• A. Post-traumatic stress disorder.
• B. Panic disorder.
• C. Dissociative identity disorder.
• D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dissociative identity disorder. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is characterized by the presence of two or more distinct personality states or identities, along with memory gaps beyond ordinary forgetfulness. The description of the husband sleepwalking, not recognizing his identity, and exhibiting multiple personalities aligns with the symptoms of DID. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) (Choice A) involves re-experiencing traumatic events, panic disorder (Choice B) is characterized by recurrent panic attacks, and obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) (Choice D) involves obsessions and compulsions. These conditions do not typically present with the specific symptoms described in the scenario.

4. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing behavioral therapy. Which outcome should the nurse recognize as an indication that the client is responding positively to therapy?

• A. The client reports increased frequency of obsessive thoughts.
• B. The client demonstrates a decrease in compulsive behaviors.
• C. The client expresses a desire to leave therapy early.
• D. The client avoids participating in exposure tasks.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A decrease in compulsive behaviors is a positive response to behavioral therapy for OCD. Behavioral therapy aims to reduce these behaviors and promote healthier coping mechanisms. Option A, reporting an increased frequency of obsessive thoughts, would indicate a lack of improvement or worsening of symptoms. Option C, expressing a desire to leave therapy early, suggests resistance or dissatisfaction with therapy. Option D, avoiding participation in exposure tasks, goes against the principles of exposure therapy, which is commonly used in OCD treatment to help clients confront their fears and reduce anxiety.

5. A middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder suffers from psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and lack of motivation. Which intervention is likely to be most effective in returning this client to a normal level of functioning?

• A. Provide education on methods to enhance sleep.
• B. Teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities.
• C. Suggest that the client develop a list of pleasurable activities.
• D. Encourage the client to exercise.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities is the most effective intervention in this scenario. This intervention helps address psychomotor retardation and enhances motivation and functioning. By structuring the client's day, it can provide a sense of purpose, routine, and accomplishment. Option A, providing education on methods to enhance sleep, may be helpful but does not directly address the client's overall functioning. Option C, suggesting the client develop a list of pleasurable activities, may provide temporary relief but may not address the core symptoms of major depressive disorder. Option D, encouraging the client to exercise, can be beneficial, but in this case, addressing the lack of structure and motivation through a daily plan is more appropriate.

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