Nursing Elites

1. A female client on a psychiatric unit is sweating profusely while vigorously doing push-ups and then running the length of the corridor several times before crashing into furniture in the sitting room. Picking herself up, she begins to verbally attack other clients. What intervention is most appropriate for the RN to use to manage the client’s behavior?

• A. Assist the client to a safe area to avoid injury.
• B. Establish clear and firm limits with the client.
• C. Offer medication to help calm the client down.
• D. Speak with the client in a calm, non-threatening manner.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client to a safe area is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. This action helps prevent injury to the client and others while allowing for de-escalation in a controlled environment. While establishing clear and firm limits (Choice B) may be necessary in some situations, the immediate priority here is safety. Offering medication (Choice C) should not be the first response unless the situation escalates further and poses a risk to the client or others. Speaking with the client in a calm, non-threatening manner (Choice D) may not be effective when the client is in an agitated state and engaging in risky behavior.

2. A client is admitted for bipolar disorder and alcohol withdrawal, depressive phase. Based on which assessment finding will the RN withhold the clonidine (Catapres) prescription?

• A. Blood pressure readings of 90/62 mmHg to 92/58 mmHg.
• B. Pulse rate of 68-78 BPM.
• C. Temperature of 99.5-99.7°F.
• D. Respiration rate of 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A. Clonidine, such as Catapres, is a medication that can lower blood pressure. Therefore, if a client has low blood pressure readings, like 90/62 mmHg to 92/58 mmHg, the registered nurse should withhold the clonidine prescription to prevent further lowering of blood pressure which could lead to adverse effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are within normal ranges and do not present a contraindication for the administration of clonidine in this context.

3. A young adult male is hospitalized due to depression and an attempted suicide. The client reports that he lost his job and was angry with his employer for firing him when he took an overdose of pain medications. Which behavior best indicates to the nurse that his condition is improving?

• A. Initiates interactions with other clients.
• B. Describes verbally when he is angry.
• C. Participates in a job search with a social worker.
• D. Denies plans to harm himself or others.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best indicator of improvement in a client with depression is initiating interactions with others. This behavior demonstrates that the client is becoming less withdrawn and more self-directed, showing an improvement in social engagement and coping mechanisms. Choice B, describing anger verbally, may show some progress in emotional expression but does not necessarily indicate overall improvement in depression. Choice C, participating in a job search with a social worker, may be positive but does not directly address social interactions, which are crucial for improving depression. Choice D, denying plans to harm himself or others, is important for safety but does not directly reflect improvement in the client's social functioning or coping skills.

4. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse’s station in a literally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
• B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
• C. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.
• D. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia. The client's symptoms of body contortion and feeling like a monster are indicative of acute dystonia, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone. Benztropine can help alleviate these acute dystonic reactions. Choice A is incorrect because changing the antipsychotic medication at this point is not indicated. Choice B is not appropriate as the client's symptoms are likely due to acute dystonia rather than muscle spasms. Choice C is also not the best course of action as the client needs immediate intervention for the acute dystonic reaction.

5. The nurse is using the CAGE questionnaire as a screening tool for a client who is seeking help because his wife said he had a drinking problem. What information should the nurse explore in-depth with the client based on this screening tool?

• A. Cancer screening result and gastritis daily alcohol intake.
• B. Consumption, liver enzyme gastrointestinal complaints, and bleeding.
• C. Efforts to cut down, annoyance with questions, guilt, and drinking as an eye-opener.
• D. Minimizes drinking, frequently misses family events, guilt about drinking, and amount of daily intake.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire focuses on the client’s self-perception and behaviors related to drinking, such as efforts to cut down and guilt.

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