a female client on a psychiatric unit is sweating profusely while she vigorously does push ups and then runs the length of the corridor several times
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Quizlet HESI Mental Health

1. A female client on a psychiatric unit is sweating profusely while vigorously doing push-ups and then running the length of the corridor several times before crashing into furniture in the sitting room. Picking herself up, she begins to verbally attack other clients. What intervention is most appropriate for the RN to use to manage the client’s behavior?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client to a safe area is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. This action helps prevent injury to the client and others while allowing for de-escalation in a controlled environment. While establishing clear and firm limits (Choice B) may be necessary in some situations, the immediate priority here is safety. Offering medication (Choice C) should not be the first response unless the situation escalates further and poses a risk to the client or others. Speaking with the client in a calm, non-threatening manner (Choice D) may not be effective when the client is in an agitated state and engaging in risky behavior.

2. Pablo is a homeless adult who has no family connections. Pablo passed out on the street, and emergency medical services took him to the hospital where he expresses a wish to die. The physician recognizes evidence of substance use problems and mental health issues and recommends inpatient treatment for Pablo. What is the rationale for this treatment choice? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In inpatient settings, there is continuous supervision available, ensuring safety and comprehensive care for individuals like Pablo who may be at risk due to substance use problems, mental health issues, and expressing a wish to die. Choice B is incorrect because the need for stabilization of multiple symptoms alone is not the primary rationale for inpatient treatment. Choice C is incorrect as although self-care and nutritional needs are important, they do not solely justify inpatient treatment. Choice D is incorrect because while medication adherence can be monitored in inpatient settings, it is not the primary rationale for choosing inpatient treatment for Pablo in this scenario.

3. The RN on the evening shift receives a report that a client is scheduled for electroconvulsive treatment (ECT) in the morning. Which intervention should the RN implement the evening before the scheduled ECT?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping the client NPO after midnight is the appropriate intervention before ECT to prevent complications during the procedure. Withholding food and fluids reduces the risk of aspiration and helps ensure the safety of the client. Option A (Hold all bedtime medications) is incorrect because medications may need to be given as prescribed unless specified otherwise by the healthcare provider. Option C (Implement elopement precautions) is unrelated to preparing a client for ECT and focuses on preventing a client from leaving the treatment area. Option D (Give the client an enema at bedtime) is unnecessary and not a standard pre-ECT preparation, making it an incorrect choice.

4. A male client with schizophrenia is admitted to the mental health unit after abruptly stopping his prescription for ziprasidone (Geodon) one month ago. Which question is most important for the RN to ask the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the most critical question for the RN to ask the client relates to hallucinations. Hallucinations, such as hearing sounds or voices others do not hear, are a hallmark symptom of schizophrenia. This inquiry is vital for assessing the presence of psychotic symptoms and the potential relapse of the client's condition. Choices A, B, and C, although important in assessing overall mental health, do not directly address the core symptomatology of schizophrenia or the potential impact of discontinuing antipsychotic medication abruptly.

5. An adolescent with anorexia nervosa is participating in a cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) program. Which behavior indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In treating anorexia nervosa with cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), the primary goals are to normalize eating behaviors and achieve weight restoration. Therefore, adherence to a meal plan and weight gain are crucial indicators of treatment effectiveness. While discussing the impact of the disorder on the family (Choice B) can be beneficial for therapy, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of CBT in treating anorexia nervosa. Expressing a desire to change behavior (Choice C) is a positive step, but actual behavioral changes such as adhering to a meal plan are more indicative of progress. Reducing the frequency of binge eating (Choice D) is more relevant for other eating disorders like bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa.

Similar Questions

A healthcare professional is assessing a client for symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which symptom should the healthcare professional expect to find?
A client with anorexia nervosa has a body mass index (BMI) of 16.5 and has been diagnosed with bradycardia. Which of the following findings should the RN be most concerned about?
A male client with schizophrenia is admitted to the mental health unit after abruptly stopping his prescription for ziprasidone (Geodon) one month ago. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask the client?
A teenager who has lost 20 pounds in the last three months is admitted to the hospital with hypotension and tachycardia. The client reports irregular menses and hair loss. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client plan of care?
Which client statement suggests to the nurse that the client is using the defense mechanism of projection to deal with anxiety related to admission to a psychiatric unit?

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