Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is exhibiting negative symptoms such as anhedonia and social withdrawal. Which intervention should be a priority for the nurse?

• A. Encourage participation in group activities.
• B. Administer prescribed antipsychotic medication.
• C. Assist the client in setting realistic goals.
• D. Promote engagement in social interactions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging participation in group activities is a priority intervention for a client with schizophrenia exhibiting negative symptoms like anhedonia and social withdrawal. Group activities provide structured social interactions and can help the client gradually re-engage with others, potentially reducing social withdrawal and improving social skills. Administering antipsychotic medication (Choice B) is essential in managing positive symptoms of schizophrenia such as hallucinations and delusions, not negative symptoms like anhedonia and social withdrawal. While assisting the client in setting realistic goals (Choice C) is important for overall care, addressing social withdrawal and anhedonia is more immediate. Promoting engagement in social interactions (Choice D) is beneficial, but encouraging participation in group activities provides a structured and supportive environment that can specifically target the negative symptoms being exhibited.

2. During the admission assessment, a female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room. When the RN notes a discrepancy between the client’s verbal and nonverbal communication, what action should the RN take?

• A. Pay close attention to and document the nonverbal messages.
• B. Ask the client’s husband to interpret the discrepancy.
• C. Ignore the nonverbal behavior and focus solely on the client’s verbal messages.
• D. Integrate the verbal and nonverbal messages and interpret them together.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a client assessment, noting and documenting nonverbal messages is important as it captures the full context of the client’s communication. Nonverbal cues can often reveal underlying emotions or issues that may not be expressed verbally. Asking the client’s husband to interpret the discrepancy (Choice B) may not be appropriate as it could potentially breach the client's privacy and trust. Ignoring nonverbal behavior (Choice C) can result in missing important cues that could impact the care provided. Integrating verbal and nonverbal messages (Choice D) is beneficial, but the initial step should be to pay close attention and document the nonverbal messages to fully understand the client's communication.

3. A client tells the RN that he has an IQ of 400+ and is a genius and an inventor. He also reports that he is married to a female movie star and thinks that his brother wants a sexual relationship with her. What is the priority nursing problem for admission to the psychiatric unit?

• A. Ineffective sexual patterns.
• B. Impaired environmental interpretation.
• C. Disturbed sensory perception.
• D. Compromised family coping.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing problem for admission to the psychiatric unit is 'Disturbed sensory perception.' This choice is correct because the client's delusional beliefs about having an IQ of 400+, being a genius and an inventor, being married to a movie star, and suspecting his brother of wanting a sexual relationship with her indicate a significant disturbance in sensory perception. The client's perceptions are not based in reality, indicating a need for immediate intervention to address these distorted beliefs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: 'Ineffective sexual patterns' is not the priority as the client's delusions go beyond just sexual relationships, 'Impaired environmental interpretation' does not capture the primary issue of distorted perceptions, and 'Compromised family coping' is not the priority concern in this scenario compared to the severe sensory perception disturbances displayed by the client.

4. A female client with a history of major depressive disorder is experiencing a worsening of symptoms. Which statement by the client indicates a potential risk for suicide?

• A. “I’ve been feeling more tired than usual.”
• B. “I’ve been thinking about how much better everyone would be without me.”
• C. “I’ve been having trouble sleeping lately.”
• D. “I feel like I can’t handle everything.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client’s statement about thinking that everyone would be better off without her indicates suicidal ideation. This statement is a significant warning sign for suicide risk and requires immediate intervention. Choices A, C, and D reflect common symptoms of depression but do not directly indicate suicidal thoughts or intentions. Feeling tired, having trouble sleeping, and feeling overwhelmed are typical symptoms of major depressive disorder but do not necessarily suggest an imminent risk of suicide like the statement in option B does.

5. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?

• A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
• B. Administer a PRN sedative.
• C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.

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