a female client is brought to the emergency department after police officers found her disoriented disorganized and confused the nurse also determines
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Quizlet HESI Mental Health

1. A female client is brought to the emergency department after police officers found her disoriented, disorganized, and confused. The nurse also determines that the client is homeless and slightly suspicious. This client’s treatment plan should include what priority problem?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Acute confusion.' In the given scenario, the client is disoriented, disorganized, and confused, indicating acute confusion. This is a priority issue to address for immediate safety and appropriate care. Option A, self-care deficit, is not the priority as the client's safety and mental status take precedence over self-care. Option B, disturbed sensory perception, is not applicable as the client's symptoms focus more on cognitive rather than sensory issues. Option C, ineffective community coping, is not the immediate concern as the client's cognitive state needs urgent attention to ensure her safety and well-being.

2. A client who is known to abuse drugs is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to a client who is exhibiting benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is the correct choice for managing benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms. Benzodiazepines are drugs that can lead to physical dependence, and abrupt discontinuation can result in withdrawal symptoms. Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine itself, is often used in a controlled manner to taper off the drug gradually and manage withdrawal symptoms effectively. Choices A, Diphenhydramine, and B, Perphenazine, are not typically used to manage benzodiazepine withdrawal. Choice C, Isocarboxazid, is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used in the treatment of depression and not indicated for benzodiazepine withdrawal.

3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction. The presentation of stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign changes suggest an acute dystonic reaction, which is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage these acute dystonic reactions. Option A is incorrect because holding the medication without addressing the acute symptoms may lead to worsening of the condition. Option B is incorrect as wiping with cold water or alcohol does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Option D is incorrect because it mentions tardive dyskinesia, which is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements that occur with long-term antipsychotic use, not the acute dystonic reaction seen here.

4. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed lithium carbonate. Which finding should the RN report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Elevated BUN levels may indicate renal impairment, which is crucial to report for clients on lithium due to its potential kidney effects. Option A, a serum lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L, is within the therapeutic range for lithium and does not require immediate reporting. Option C, a serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L, is within the normal range and not directly related to lithium therapy. Option D, urine output of 800 mL in 24 hours, may indicate a need for further assessment but is not the most critical finding to report compared to potential renal impairment indicated by an elevated BUN level.

5. Which actions are likely to help promote the self-esteem of a male client with major depression?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Including the client in determining the treatment protocol is the most suitable action to promote the self-esteem of a male client with major depression. This approach empowers the client, involves him in decision-making regarding his care, and fosters a sense of control and self-worth. Option A, asking about his long-term goals, may not directly address his immediate self-esteem needs related to his current condition. Option B, discussing the challenges of his medical condition, may inadvertently focus on negative aspects and potentially lower self-esteem. Option D, encouraging engagement in recreational therapy, is beneficial but may not directly address the client's sense of control and self-worth in decision-making related to his treatment.

Similar Questions

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To provide effective care for a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia, what associated condition should the nurse frequently assess for? Select all that apply.

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