Nursing Elites

1. A female client is brought to the emergency department after police officers found her disoriented, disorganized, and confused. The nurse also determines that the client is homeless and slightly suspicious. This client’s treatment plan should include what priority problem?

• A. Self-care deficit.
• B. Disturbed sensory perception.
• C. Ineffective community coping.
• D. Acute confusion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Acute confusion.' In the given scenario, the client is disoriented, disorganized, and confused, indicating acute confusion. This is a priority issue to address for immediate safety and appropriate care. Option A, self-care deficit, is not the priority as the client's safety and mental status take precedence over self-care. Option B, disturbed sensory perception, is not applicable as the client's symptoms focus more on cognitive rather than sensory issues. Option C, ineffective community coping, is not the immediate concern as the client's cognitive state needs urgent attention to ensure her safety and well-being.

2. Which client statement suggests to the nurse that the client is using the defense mechanism of projection to deal with anxiety related to admission to a psychiatric unit?

• A. I am here because the police thought I was doing something wrong
• B. At least I hit the wall instead of hitting the psychiatric aide
• C. I want to be here because I know it is the best psychiatric facility
• D. Don’t believe everything my family tells you, I am not crazy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client is projecting their aggressive impulses onto an inanimate object, the wall, instead of accepting their own feelings. This statement reflects the defense mechanism of projection. Choice A is not projection; it is an explanation of why the client is there. Choice C indicates acceptance of the facility and does not involve projection. Choice D is a denial statement rather than projection.

3. The nurse on the evening shift receives report that a client is scheduled for electroconvulsive treatment (ECT) in the morning. Which intervention should the nurse implement the evening before the scheduled ECT?

• A. Hold all bedtime medication.
• B. Keep the client NPO after midnight.
• C. Implement elopement precautions.
• D. Give the client an enema at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping the client NPO after midnight is essential to prevent aspiration during the ECT procedure. Choice A, holding all bedtime medication, is not necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Choice C, implementing elopement precautions, is unrelated to preparing for ECT. Choice D, giving the client an enema at bedtime, is not a standard pre-ECT intervention.

4. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

5. A male client with known auditory hallucinations begins talking loudly and gesturing wildly while in the unit’s day room. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a PRN sedative.
• B. Sit in the chair next to the client.
• C. Escort the client to his room.
• D. Listen to what the client is saying.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When dealing with a client experiencing auditory hallucinations, it is crucial for the nurse to first listen to what the client is saying. Auditory hallucinations may hold significance to the client, and by actively listening, the nurse can gather information about the content and context of the hallucinations. This information helps the nurse assess the client's current state, emotional responses, and the potential triggers for the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice A) should not be the initial action as it may suppress important information and feelings the client is trying to communicate. Sitting next to the client (Choice B) may not be appropriate without understanding the situation better. Escorting the client to his room (Choice C) may escalate the situation without addressing the underlying cause of the behavior, which can be better understood through active listening.

Similar Questions