Nursing Elites

1. The RN is admitting a male client who takes lithium carbonate (Eskalith) twice a day. Which information should the RN report to the HCP immediately?

• A. Short-term memory loss.
• B. Five-pound weight gain.
• C. Decreased affect.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are signs of potential lithium toxicity, which is a serious condition requiring immediate attention. These symptoms can indicate a dangerous level of lithium in the body that can lead to severe complications. Short-term memory loss (A), five-pound weight gain (B), and decreased affect (C) are important to monitor but are not as immediately concerning as symptoms of potential toxicity like nausea and vomiting.

2. A client with an eating disorder tells the RN, 'I’ve been eating only 400 calories per day and have been taking diuretics to lose weight.' What is the RN’s best response?

• A. “Your diet is very harmful and needs to be changed immediately.”
• B. “It’s important to monitor your calorie intake carefully.”
• C. “Have you noticed any physical effects from this low-calorie diet?”
• D. “The diuretics could be causing your body to lose essential nutrients.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is D. By addressing the potential harm of diuretics and the low-calorie diet, the nurse effectively addresses both aspects of the client's disordered eating behavior. Choice A is too direct and does not provide information on the specific issue of diuretics. Choice B focuses solely on monitoring calorie intake without addressing the use of diuretics. Choice C inquires about physical effects but does not address the overall risks associated with diuretics and low-calorie intake.

3. A male client with a long history of alcohol dependency arrives in the emergency department describing the feeling of bugs crawling on his body. His BP is 170/102, pulse rate is 110 bpm, and his blood alcohol level (BAL) is 0 mg/dl. Which medication should the nurse administer?

• A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
• B. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
• C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing hallucinations and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the appropriate choice as it helps manage withdrawal symptoms, including hallucinations and elevated blood pressure in alcohol-dependent clients. Haloperidol (Haldol) (Choice A) is an antipsychotic but is not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Thiamine (Vitamin B1) (Choice B) is essential in alcohol withdrawal treatment for preventing Wernicke's encephalopathy, but in this case, addressing the acute withdrawal symptoms is the priority. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice C) is an antihistamine that may help with itching or mild anxiety but is not the preferred choice for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms like hallucinations and elevated blood pressure.

4. A male client with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that he needs to 'make some deals so that he can improve his retirement savings.' Based on this information, which client outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Delay business decisions until his mania subsides.
• B. Identify the feelings associated with his behaviors.
• C. Seek legal counsel when making business decisions.
• D. Describe why he is feeling fearful about his finances.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In individuals with bipolar disorder experiencing mania, impulsivity and poor judgment are common. Delaying business decisions until the mania subsides is crucial to prevent impulsive and potentially harmful financial choices. Choice B, identifying feelings associated with behaviors, may be important but does not directly address the immediate need to prevent risky financial decisions. Seeking legal counsel (Choice C) may be appropriate in some situations but is not the priority in managing acute mania. Describing why he feels fearful about finances (Choice D) is relevant for understanding emotions but does not address the immediate risk of impulsive financial actions during mania.

5. A teenager who has lost 20 pounds in the last three months is admitted to the hospital with hypotension and tachycardia. The client reports irregular menses and hair loss. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client’s plan of care?

• A. Initiate caloric and nutritional therapy.
• B. Implement behavioral modification therapy.
• C. Evaluate the client for low self-esteem.
• D. Record daily weights and graph trends.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client presents with evidence of anorexia nervosa resulting from self-starvation, which is a life-threatening condition. Providing nutrition and calories is the priority intervention so that the risk of electrolyte imbalance and severe dehydration can be reduced. Behavioral modification therapy (Choice B) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the priority in this acute situation. Evaluating for low self-esteem (Choice C) may be part of the nursing assessment but does not address the immediate life-threatening issues. Recording daily weights and graphing trends (Choice D) is important for monitoring progress but does not address the critical need for nutritional therapy in this case.

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