Nursing Elites

1. The RN on the evening shift receives a report that a client is scheduled for electroconvulsive treatment (ECT) in the morning. Which intervention should the RN implement the evening before the scheduled ECT?

• A. Hold all bedtime medications.
• B. Keep the client NPO after midnight.
• C. Implement elopement precautions.
• D. Give the client an enema at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping the client NPO after midnight is the appropriate intervention before ECT to prevent complications during the procedure. Withholding food and fluids reduces the risk of aspiration and helps ensure the safety of the client. Option A (Hold all bedtime medications) is incorrect because medications may need to be given as prescribed unless specified otherwise by the healthcare provider. Option C (Implement elopement precautions) is unrelated to preparing a client for ECT and focuses on preventing a client from leaving the treatment area. Option D (Give the client an enema at bedtime) is unnecessary and not a standard pre-ECT preparation, making it an incorrect choice.

2. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

3. The RN is providing education about strategies for a safety plan for a female client who is a victim of intimate partner violence. Which strategies should be included in the safety plan? (SOA)

• A. Purchase a gun for protection.
• B. Establish a code with family and friends to signal violence.
• C. Take a self-defense course focused on protection.
• D. Prepare a bag with extra clothes for self and children.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Establishing a code with family and friends is crucial in situations of intimate partner violence as it allows discreet communication for help without alerting the abuser. Having a pre-prepared bag with essentials like extra clothes is important to facilitate a quick exit if necessary. Purchasing a gun is not a recommended safety strategy as it can escalate violence and pose more danger. While taking a self-defense course focused on protection is beneficial, it is essential to avoid courses that emphasize retaliation, as they can increase the risk and escalate violence.

4. The client is preparing to discontinue the use of a sedative-hypnotic medication. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. “You may experience withdrawal symptoms; these are usually mild.”
• B. “The medication will need to be gradually tapered off.”
• C. “You should increase your caffeine intake to stay alert.”
• D. “There should be no change in your sleep patterns during discontinuation.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When discontinuing sedative-hypnotic medications, it is crucial to gradually taper them off to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because withdrawal symptoms can be severe, not always mild. Choice C is incorrect as increasing caffeine intake can exacerbate sleep disturbances. Choice D is incorrect because changes in sleep patterns are expected during discontinuation of sedative-hypnotic medications.

5. After surgery, a male client with antisocial personality disorder frequently requests a specific nurse be assigned to his care and becomes belligerent when another nurse is assigned. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Reassure the client that his request will be met whenever possible.
• B. Advise the client that assignments are not based on client requests.
• C. Ask the client to explain why he constantly requests the nurse.
• D. Encourage the client to verbalize his feelings about the nurse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse is to advise the client that assignments are not based on client requests. Clients with antisocial personality disorder may attempt to manipulate situations to their advantage. By setting clear boundaries and explaining that assignments are not based on client preferences, the nurse helps prevent manipulation and maintains a professional approach to care. Reassuring the client about his requests (Choice A) may encourage the inappropriate behavior to continue. Asking the client to explain his requests (Choice C) may further fuel the manipulation by providing an opportunity for the client to justify his actions. Encouraging the client to verbalize feelings (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue of manipulating the assignment process and may inadvertently reinforce the behavior.

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