Nursing Elites

1. A male client tells the RN that he does not want to take the atypical antipsychotic drug, olanzapine (Zyprexa), because of the side effects he experienced when he took it previously. Which statement is best for the RN to provide?

• A. The medication has side effects, but they are manageable.
• B. If you refuse the medication, you will be restrained.
• C. The doctor will try another medication if this one is not effective.
• D. It is important to take the medication as prescribed for it to be effective.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to address the client's concerns about the side effects of the medication. By acknowledging the side effects and reassuring the client that they are manageable, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their treatment. This approach fosters trust between the client and the healthcare provider, promotes open communication, and supports treatment adherence. Choices B and D are not appropriate as they do not address the client's specific concern about the side effects or offer constructive support. Choice C is premature as switching medications should be considered after exploring ways to manage the side effects of the current medication.

2. The RN on the evening shift receives a report that a client is scheduled for electroconvulsive treatment (ECT) in the morning. Which intervention should the RN implement the evening before the scheduled ECT?

• A. Hold all bedtime medications.
• B. Keep the client NPO after midnight.
• C. Implement elopement precautions.
• D. Give the client an enema at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping the client NPO after midnight is the appropriate intervention before ECT to prevent complications during the procedure. Withholding food and fluids reduces the risk of aspiration and helps ensure the safety of the client. Option A (Hold all bedtime medications) is incorrect because medications may need to be given as prescribed unless specified otherwise by the healthcare provider. Option C (Implement elopement precautions) is unrelated to preparing a client for ECT and focuses on preventing a client from leaving the treatment area. Option D (Give the client an enema at bedtime) is unnecessary and not a standard pre-ECT preparation, making it an incorrect choice.

3. A client in the emergency department presents with confusion, disorientation, and agitation after drinking alcohol. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate to assess for potential complications?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Electrolyte panel
• C. Liver function tests
• D. Urinalysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is an electrolyte panel. When a client presents with confusion, disorientation, and agitation after drinking alcohol, it indicates potential complications such as electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial in these cases to detect and address abnormalities that may result from alcohol intake. While a complete blood count (choice A) may provide some valuable information, it is not the primary test to assess for alcohol-related complications presenting with these symptoms. Liver function tests (choice C) are more specific for assessing liver damage due to chronic alcohol use rather than immediate complications. Urinalysis (choice D) may help detect some issues but is not the most appropriate initial test to assess for potential complications in this scenario.

4. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric inpatient unit with a bandaged flesh wound after attempting to shoot himself. He was divorced one year ago, lost his job four months ago, and suffered a breakup of his current relationship last week. What is the most likely source of this client’s current feelings of depression?

• A. Feelings of frustration.
• B. A sense of loss.
• C. Poor self-esteem.
• D. A lack of intimate relationships.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's recent history of divorce, job loss, and breakup of a current relationship indicates a series of significant losses. These losses are likely the primary source of his feelings of depression, leading to a sense of loss. While feelings of frustration (choice A) and poor self-esteem (choice C) could be contributing factors, the immediate trigger for his current emotional state appears to be the series of losses. A lack of intimate relationships (choice D) may be a consequence of the client's depressive symptoms rather than the root cause in this scenario.

5. A male client with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that he needs to 'make some deals so that he can improve his retirement savings.' Based on this information, which client outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Delay business decisions until his mania subsides.
• B. Identify the feelings associated with his behaviors.
• C. Seek legal counsel when making business decisions.
• D. Describe why he is feeling fearful about his finances.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In individuals with bipolar disorder experiencing mania, impulsivity and poor judgment are common. Delaying business decisions until the mania subsides is crucial to prevent impulsive and potentially harmful financial choices. Choice B, identifying feelings associated with behaviors, may be important but does not directly address the immediate need to prevent risky financial decisions. Seeking legal counsel (Choice C) may be appropriate in some situations but is not the priority in managing acute mania. Describing why he feels fearful about finances (Choice D) is relevant for understanding emotions but does not address the immediate risk of impulsive financial actions during mania.

Similar Questions