HESI RN
Quizlet Mental Health HESI
1. A client with depression remains in bed most of the day and declines activities. Which nursing problem has the greatest priority for this client?
- A. Loss of interest in diversional activity.
- B. Social isolation.
- C. Refusal to address nutritional needs.
- D. Low self-esteem.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Refusal to address nutritional needs.' When a client with depression remains in bed and declines activities, addressing their refusal to address nutritional needs is of utmost priority. Nutritional needs are essential for physical health and overall well-being. Inadequate nutrition can worsen the client's physical health, impact their mood, and hinder the effectiveness of treatment. Option A, 'Loss of interest in diversional activity,' while important, is not as critical as addressing nutritional needs for immediate physical well-being. Option B, 'Social isolation,' is a significant concern but addressing nutritional needs takes precedence due to its direct impact on physical health. Option D, 'Low self-esteem,' is a valid concern but does not take priority over addressing the client's refusal to meet their nutritional needs for immediate health benefits.
2. A male client tells the RN that he does not want to take the atypical antipsychotic drug, olanzapine (Zyprexa), because of the side effects he experienced when he took it previously. Which statement is best for the RN to provide?
- A. The medication has side effects, but they are manageable.
- B. If you refuse the medication, you will be restrained.
- C. The doctor will try another medication if this one is not effective.
- D. It is important to take the medication as prescribed for it to be effective.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to address the client's concerns about the side effects of the medication. By acknowledging the side effects and reassuring the client that they are manageable, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their treatment. This approach fosters trust between the client and the healthcare provider, promotes open communication, and supports treatment adherence. Choices B and D are not appropriate as they do not address the client's specific concern about the side effects or offer constructive support. Choice C is premature as switching medications should be considered after exploring ways to manage the side effects of the current medication.
3. A male adolescent was admitted to the unit two days ago for depression. When the mental health nurse tries to interview the client to establish rapport, he becomes very irritated and sarcastic. Which action is best for the nurse to take?
- A. Offer to play a game of cards with the client.
- B. Report the behavior to the next shift.
- C. Document the behavior in the chart.
- D. Plan to talk with the client the next day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Offering to play a game of cards with the adolescent is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation. Engaging in an activity like playing a game can help establish rapport with the adolescent as it provides a more relaxed and non-threatening environment for communication. This approach can help the adolescent feel more comfortable and open up, as adolescents often find it easier to communicate when involved in an activity. Reporting the behavior to the next shift, documenting the behavior, or planning to talk with the client the next day do not directly address the immediate need to establish rapport and improve communication with the adolescent.
4. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is receiving a new prescription for fluoxetine (Prozac). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this medication?
- A. “I should begin feeling less anxious within a few weeks.”
- B. “The drug will help me control my compulsive behaviors.”
- C. “I will need to have a weekly blood test to check my liver function.”
- D. “I should avoid foods that contain tyramine while taking this medication.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fluoxetine, an SSRI, can help manage symptoms of OCD by assisting in controlling compulsive behaviors rather than directly reducing anxiety. The improvement in symptoms usually occurs over a few weeks. Choice A is incorrect as it provides a timeframe for anxiety improvement, which is not the primary goal of fluoxetine in OCD treatment. Choice C is incorrect as routine blood tests are not typically required with fluoxetine. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding tyramine-containing foods is more relevant for MAOIs, not SSRIs like fluoxetine.
5. A healthcare provider is evaluating a client's response to a new antianxiety medication. Which client statement indicates a positive response to the medication?
- A. “I feel more relaxed and less anxious.”
- B. “I am sleeping less and feel more energetic.”
- C. “I have not noticed any changes in my anxiety levels.”
- D. “I have more difficulty concentrating than before.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: “I feel more relaxed and less anxious.” A positive response to antianxiety medication is characterized by reduced anxiety and increased relaxation. Choice B, which mentions sleeping less and feeling more energetic, suggests potential side effects rather than a positive response to the medication. Choice C indicates no change in anxiety levels, which is not indicative of a positive response. Choice D, mentioning difficulty concentrating, is also a sign of a negative response to antianxiety medication as it may suggest cognitive impairment.
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