Nursing Elites

1. A female client is brought to the emergency department after police officers found her disoriented, disorganized, and confused. The RN also determines that the client is homeless and is exhibiting suspiciousness. The client’s plan of care should include what priority problem?

• A. Acute confusion.
• B. Ineffective community coping.
• C. Disturbed sensory perception.
• D. Self-care deficit.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acute confusion is the priority problem because it directly impacts the client's safety and functioning. In this scenario, the client is disoriented, disorganized, and confused, which can pose immediate risks to her well-being. Ineffective community coping, disturbed sensory perception, and self-care deficit are not as urgent in this situation. Ineffective community coping focuses on the client's ability to manage stress related to the community, disturbed sensory perception pertains to alterations in sensory input, and self-care deficit involves the inability to perform activities of daily living independently. While these issues may also need addressing, acute confusion takes precedence due to the immediate safety concerns it presents.

2. The nurse on the day shift receives report about a client with depression who was found on the floor in the morning. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Assist the client to get out of bed and involved in an activity.
• B. Monitor the client’s appetite and sleep patterns.
• C. Assess the client’s feelings regarding the hospital stay.
• D. Explain that staff will check on the client every 30 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client to engage in activities is the best intervention as it can help improve mood and prevent further decline in function. This intervention can also help the client regain a sense of control and purpose. Option B, monitoring appetite and sleep patterns, is important but not the most immediate intervention needed in this situation. Option C, assessing feelings about the hospital stay, is also important but addressing the client's physical safety and well-being should take precedence. Option D, explaining the frequency of staff checks, is not as effective in addressing the client's immediate needs for engagement and support.

3. A client is admitted for bipolar disorder and alcohol withdrawal, depressive phase. Based on which assessment finding will the RN withhold the clonidine (Catapres) prescription?

• A. Blood pressure readings of 90/62 mmHg to 92/58 mmHg.
• B. Pulse rate of 68-78 BPM.
• C. Temperature of 99.5-99.7°F.
• D. Respiration rate of 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A. Clonidine, such as Catapres, is a medication that can lower blood pressure. Therefore, if a client has low blood pressure readings, like 90/62 mmHg to 92/58 mmHg, the registered nurse should withhold the clonidine prescription to prevent further lowering of blood pressure which could lead to adverse effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are within normal ranges and do not present a contraindication for the administration of clonidine in this context.

4. A client is being treated for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse educate the client about?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Insomnia
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Insomnia. Insomnia is a common side effect of SSRIs, including those used to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Educating the client about potential side effects like insomnia is crucial for managing expectations and promoting treatment adherence. Weight loss (choice A) is less common with SSRIs and might not be a primary concern for a client with GAD. Increased appetite (choice B) is also less likely with SSRIs. Dry mouth (choice D) is a side effect more commonly associated with other classes of medications, such as anticholinergics, rather than SSRIs.

5. A client is being educated by a nurse about strategies for a safety plan for intimate partner violence. Which strategies should be included in the safety plan? (Select all that apply)

• A. Have a bag ready that contains extra clothes for self and children.
• B. Establish a code with family and friends to signal violence.
• C. Purchase a gun for protection.
• D. Attend a self-defense course focused on self-protection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct strategies for a safety plan for a victim of intimate partner violence include having a bag ready with essentials for self and children and establishing a code with family and friends to signal danger. These strategies can help the client prepare for emergencies and seek help discreetly. Purchasing a gun (Choice C) is not a safe or recommended strategy as it can escalate violence and pose more significant risks. Additionally, taking a self-defense course focused on self-protection (Choice D) is important for self-defense, but it should not involve retaliatory actions against the abuser with the intent to cause harm.

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