Nursing Elites

1. What action is most important for the RN to implement within the first 24 hours after treatment is initiated for a homeless client who reports feeling sad and depressed and has only had 4 hours of sleep in the past 2 days?

• A. Allow the client to rest and sleep.
• B. Ensure the client attends groups addressing coping skills for dealing with depression.
• C. Begin planning for the client’s discharge.
• D. Encourage verbalization of feelings.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A: Addressing the client’s immediate need for rest and sleep is crucial for stabilization and recovery. It is essential to prioritize the client's physical well-being and provide the opportunity for adequate rest. B: Group therapy and coping skills are important but secondary to ensuring immediate needs are met. C: Discharge planning is important but should follow stabilization of the client’s immediate needs. D: Encouraging verbalization of feelings is supportive but not as urgent as addressing basic needs like rest.

2. A male client who recently lost a loved one arrives at the mental health center and tells the nurse he is no longer interested in his usual activities and has not slept for several days. Which priority nursing problem should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Risk for suicide
• B. Sleep deprivation
• C. Situational low self-esteem
• D. Social isolation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for suicide. Considering the client's recent loss, lack of interest in activities, and sleep disturbances, the nurse should prioritize assessing and addressing the risk for suicide. This client is displaying warning signs such as loss of interest in usual activities and sleep disturbances, which are commonly associated with suicidal ideation. B: Sleep deprivation is not the priority issue in this scenario, as the client's lack of sleep is likely a symptom of a deeper emotional struggle. C: Situational low self-esteem and D: Social isolation may be concerns for this client but do not take precedence over the immediate risk of suicide, given the presented symptoms.

3. A male adolescent was admitted to the unit two days ago for depression. When the mental health nurse tries to interview the client to establish rapport, he becomes very irritated and sarcastic. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Offer to play a game of cards with the client.
• B. Report the behavior to the next shift.
• C. Document the behavior in the chart.
• D. Plan to talk with the client the next day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering to play a game of cards with the adolescent is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation. Engaging in an activity like playing a game can help establish rapport with the adolescent as it provides a more relaxed and non-threatening environment for communication. This approach can help the adolescent feel more comfortable and open up, as adolescents often find it easier to communicate when involved in an activity. Reporting the behavior to the next shift, documenting the behavior, or planning to talk with the client the next day do not directly address the immediate need to establish rapport and improve communication with the adolescent.

4. During the admission assessment of an underweight adolescent with depression on a psychiatric unit, the nurse finds a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dl. Which finding requires notification to the healthcare provider?

• A. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dl.
• B. BP of 110/70 mmHg.
• C. WBC of 10,000 mm³.
• D. Body mass index of 21.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dl is critically low, indicating hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Prompt notification to the healthcare provider is essential for immediate intervention. Choice B, a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, is within the normal range. Choice C, a white blood cell count of 10,000 mm³, is also within normal limits and is not a concerning finding in this context. Choice D, a body mass index of 21, may indicate being underweight but is not as urgent as addressing the critically low potassium level.

5. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
• B. Isolate the client from other clients.
• C. Administer a PRN sedative.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best intervention for a male client with schizophrenia displaying echolalia, which is disruptive to others, is for the nurse to escort the client to his room. Echolalia, the constant repetition of others' words, can be disruptive in a communal setting. By guiding the client to a private space like his room, the nurse helps manage the behavior without isolating or medicating the client unnecessarily. Avoiding acknowledging the behavior (Choice A) does not address the issue, isolating the client (Choice B) may exacerbate feelings of exclusion, and administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be reserved for situations where there is imminent risk or severe agitation, not for managing echolalia.

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