Nursing Elites

1. A male client with bipolar disorder who began taking lithium carbonate five days ago is complaining of excessive thirst, and the nurse finds him attempting to drink water from the bathroom sink faucet. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Report the client’s serum lithium level to the healthcare provider.
• B. Encourage the client to suck on hard candy to relieve the symptoms.
• C. No action is needed since polydipsia is a common side effect.
• D. Tell the client that drinking from the faucet is not allowed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to suck on hard candy is the appropriate intervention as it can help alleviate the sensation of excessive thirst, which is a common side effect of lithium. Reporting the client’s serum lithium level to the healthcare provider may be needed if there are signs of lithium toxicity, but the priority here is to address the immediate symptom of excessive thirst. Polydipsia, or excessive thirst, is a known side effect of lithium, but it should not be left unaddressed. Simply telling the client that drinking from the faucet is not allowed does not address the underlying issue of excessive thirst and may lead to further distress.

2. The client is preparing to discontinue the use of a sedative-hypnotic medication. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. “You may experience withdrawal symptoms; these are usually mild.”
• B. “The medication will need to be gradually tapered off.”
• C. “You should increase your caffeine intake to stay alert.”
• D. “There should be no change in your sleep patterns during discontinuation.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When discontinuing sedative-hypnotic medications, it is crucial to gradually taper them off to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because withdrawal symptoms can be severe, not always mild. Choice C is incorrect as increasing caffeine intake can exacerbate sleep disturbances. Choice D is incorrect because changes in sleep patterns are expected during discontinuation of sedative-hypnotic medications.

3. The nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is exhibiting symptoms of paranoia. Which behavior would the nurse most likely observe?

• A. The client is seen as unmotivated and withdrawn.
• B. The client is preoccupied with a fear of being harmed.
• C. The client displays a blunted affect and lacks emotional response.
• D. The client avoids group activities and shows decreased appetite.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with paranoia, they typically exhibit an intense fear of being harmed, persecuted, or targeted by others. This fear often dominates their thoughts and can significantly impact their daily functioning and interactions. Choice A, being unmotivated and withdrawn, is more indicative of negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as avolition and social withdrawal. Choice C, displaying a blunted affect and lacking emotional response, is associated with flat affect, a symptom commonly seen in schizophrenia but not specific to paranoia. Choice D, avoiding group activities and showing decreased appetite, may be related to various symptoms or side effects, but it is not a defining characteristic of paranoia in schizophrenia.

4. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing behavioral therapy. Which outcome should the nurse recognize as an indication that the client is responding positively to therapy?

• A. The client reports increased frequency of obsessive thoughts.
• B. The client demonstrates a decrease in compulsive behaviors.
• C. The client expresses a desire to leave therapy early.
• D. The client avoids participating in exposure tasks.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A decrease in compulsive behaviors is a positive response to behavioral therapy for OCD. Behavioral therapy aims to reduce these behaviors and promote healthier coping mechanisms. Option A, reporting an increased frequency of obsessive thoughts, would indicate a lack of improvement or worsening of symptoms. Option C, expressing a desire to leave therapy early, suggests resistance or dissatisfaction with therapy. Option D, avoiding participation in exposure tasks, goes against the principles of exposure therapy, which is commonly used in OCD treatment to help clients confront their fears and reduce anxiety.

5. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Decrease in manic episodes.
• B. Improvement in depressive symptoms.
• C. Reduction in anxiety symptoms.
• D. Increased sleep duration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.

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