HESI RN
Quizlet Mental Health HESI
1. An older male client with schizophrenia is found smearing feces on the bathroom walls of the chronic mental health unit where he resides. What action should the RN implement?
- A. Explain that the feces belong in the toilet.
- B. Show the client how to clean the walls.
- C. Escort the client out of the bathroom.
- D. Assist the client to clean the walls.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Escorting the client out of the bathroom is the most appropriate action to take in this situation. This helps prevent further inappropriate behavior and maintains hygiene, while avoiding reinforcement of the behavior. Option A, explaining that the feces belong in the toilet, may not be effective as the behavior is likely a manifestation of the client's condition rather than a lack of understanding. Option B, showing the client how to clean the walls, may not address the underlying issue and could potentially reinforce the behavior. Option D, assisting the client to clean the walls, may also reinforce the behavior and is not the best approach to managing the situation.
2. The nurse on the evening shift receives report that a client is scheduled for electroconvulsive treatment (ECT) in the morning. Which intervention should the nurse implement the evening before the scheduled ECT?
- A. Hold all bedtime medication.
- B. Keep the client NPO after midnight.
- C. Implement elopement precautions.
- D. Give the client an enema at bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Keeping the client NPO after midnight is essential to prevent aspiration during the ECT procedure. Choice A, holding all bedtime medication, is not necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Choice C, implementing elopement precautions, is unrelated to preparing for ECT. Choice D, giving the client an enema at bedtime, is not a standard pre-ECT intervention.
3. A young adult male is hospitalized due to depression and an attempted suicide. The client reports that he lost his job and was angry with his employer for firing him when he took an overdose of pain medications. Which behavior best indicates to the nurse that his condition is improving?
- A. Initiates interactions with other clients.
- B. Describes verbally when he is angry.
- C. Participates in a job search with a social worker.
- D. Denies plans to harm himself or others.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best indicator of improvement in a client with depression is initiating interactions with others. This behavior demonstrates that the client is becoming less withdrawn and more self-directed, showing an improvement in social engagement and coping mechanisms. Choice B, describing anger verbally, may show some progress in emotional expression but does not necessarily indicate overall improvement in depression. Choice C, participating in a job search with a social worker, may be positive but does not directly address social interactions, which are crucial for improving depression. Choice D, denying plans to harm himself or others, is important for safety but does not directly reflect improvement in the client's social functioning or coping skills.
4. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse’s station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
- B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
- C. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.
- D. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client is experiencing a dystonic reaction due to dopamine depletion, which is a known side effect of Risperidone. Dystonia presents as abnormal muscle contractions and postures. The immediate management for this side effect is the administration of an anticholinergic medication like Benztropine (Cogentin). Choice A is incorrect as thioridazine is not the recommended medication for dystonic reactions. Choice B is incorrect as a hot pack would not effectively address the underlying cause of the dystonic reaction. Choice D is incorrect as occupational therapy is not the appropriate intervention for managing acute dystonia.
5. The RN is teaching a client about the initiation of the prescribed abstinence therapy using disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client acknowledge understanding?
- A. Completely abstain from heroin or cocaine use.
- B. Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours prior to the first dose.
- C. Attend monthly meetings of Alcoholics Anonymous.
- D. Admit to others that he is a substance user.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours prior to the first dose." It is essential for the client to understand the importance of abstaining from alcohol for at least 12 hours before starting disulfiram to prevent potential adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because disulfiram is specifically used to deter alcohol consumption, not heroin or cocaine use. Choice C is not directly related to the initiation of disulfiram therapy and attending AA meetings is not a requirement for taking disulfiram. Choice D is irrelevant and unnecessary for the initiation of disulfiram therapy.
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