Nursing Elites

1. An older male client with schizophrenia is found smearing feces on the bathroom walls of the chronic mental health unit where he resides. What action should the RN implement?

• A. Explain that the feces belong in the toilet.
• B. Show the client how to clean the walls.
• C. Escort the client out of the bathroom.
• D. Assist the client to clean the walls.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Escorting the client out of the bathroom is the most appropriate action to take in this situation. This helps prevent further inappropriate behavior and maintains hygiene, while avoiding reinforcement of the behavior. Option A, explaining that the feces belong in the toilet, may not be effective as the behavior is likely a manifestation of the client's condition rather than a lack of understanding. Option B, showing the client how to clean the walls, may not address the underlying issue and could potentially reinforce the behavior. Option D, assisting the client to clean the walls, may also reinforce the behavior and is not the best approach to managing the situation.

2. Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a 'moody child' with an onset of odd behavior around age 14, which caused him to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert's early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:

• A. Favorable with medication
• B. In the relapse stage
• C. Improvable with psychosocial interventions
• D. To have a less positive outcome

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of early and slow onset of schizophrenia, the prognosis is generally less positive. This means that the outlook for individuals like Gilbert, who showed signs of schizophrenia at a young age, is often poorer. Option A is incorrect because while medication can help manage symptoms, the overall prognosis is still less favorable. Option B is incorrect since relapse stage typically refers to a period of worsening symptoms after initial improvement. Option C is incorrect because while psychosocial interventions can be beneficial, the underlying early and slow onset of schizophrenia indicates a less positive outcome.

3. A female client with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is admitted to the hospital for a cardiac catheterization. The afternoon before the procedure, the client begins to keep detailed notes of the nursing care she is receiving and reports her findings to the RN at bedtime. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Explain to the client that her behavior invades the rights of the nursing staff.
• B. Ask the client to explain why she is keeping a detailed record of her nursing care.
• C. Teach the client strategies to control her obsessive-compulsive behavior.
• D. Encourage the client to express her feelings regarding the upcoming procedure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asking the client to explain why she is keeping a detailed record of her nursing care is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation. Understanding the client’s motivations for keeping detailed records can provide insight into her obsessive-compulsive behaviors and help manage them effectively. This approach allows for a non-confrontational exploration of the behavior. Choice A is incorrect because it may be perceived as confrontational and does not address the underlying reasons for the behavior. Choice C is incorrect because teaching strategies to control behavior should come after understanding the client's motives. Choice D is incorrect as it does not directly address the behavior of keeping detailed records, which is the immediate concern that needs to be addressed.

4. An elderly client diagnosed with delirium is being treated with antipsychotic medication. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Akathisia
• B. Hallucinations
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Drowsiness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should monitor for in an elderly client diagnosed with delirium and treated with antipsychotic medication is orthostatic hypotension. Antipsychotic medications can lead to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, particularly in elderly individuals. Akathisia (choice A) refers to a movement disorder characterized by a feeling of inner restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specific to elderly clients with delirium. Hallucinations (choice B) are sensory perceptions that appear real but are created by the mind, and while they can be associated with certain conditions or medications, they are not a common side effect of antipsychotic medications in elderly clients with delirium. Drowsiness (choice D) is a general CNS depressant effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications but is not the specific side effect that the nurse should be monitoring for in this case.

5. A client with a recent diagnosis of bipolar disorder is attending a support group for the first time. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further education about the disorder?

• A. “I will make sure to take my medications every day.”
• B. “I will avoid high-stress situations whenever possible.”
• C. “I know I can stop my medications when I am feeling better.”
• D. “I should monitor my mood changes closely.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it shows a misconception about bipolar disorder treatment. Stopping medications when feeling better can lead to a relapse or worsening of symptoms. Choice A is correct because medication adherence is crucial in managing bipolar disorder. Choice B is also a good strategy as stress management is important in symptom control. Choice D is a proactive approach to self-awareness and can help in recognizing early signs of mood changes.

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