Nursing Elites

1. An older male client with schizophrenia is found smearing feces on the bathroom walls of the chronic mental health unit where he resides. What action should the RN implement?

• A. Explain that the feces belong in the toilet.
• B. Show the client how to clean the walls.
• C. Escort the client out of the bathroom.
• D. Assist the client to clean the walls.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Escorting the client out of the bathroom is the most appropriate action to take in this situation. This helps prevent further inappropriate behavior and maintains hygiene, while avoiding reinforcement of the behavior. Option A, explaining that the feces belong in the toilet, may not be effective as the behavior is likely a manifestation of the client's condition rather than a lack of understanding. Option B, showing the client how to clean the walls, may not address the underlying issue and could potentially reinforce the behavior. Option D, assisting the client to clean the walls, may also reinforce the behavior and is not the best approach to managing the situation.

2. A client is being educated by a healthcare professional about initiating a prescribed abstinence therapy using Disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client acknowledge understanding?

• A. Admit to others that they are a substance abuser.
• B. Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours before taking the first dose.
• C. Attend monthly Alcoholics Anonymous meetings.
• D. Completely abstain from heroin or cocaine use.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: B: Before starting Disulfiram therapy, it is crucial for clients to be alcohol-free for a minimum of 12 hours to prevent adverse reactions. A: Admitting substance abuse is important, but it is not directly linked to the initiation of Disulfiram therapy. C: Attending Alcoholics Anonymous meetings is beneficial for support but not a specific requirement for starting Disulfiram. D: The focus of Disulfiram therapy is on alcohol abstinence, so abstaining from heroin or cocaine is not directly related to this medication.

3. What action is most important for the RN to implement within the first 24 hours after treatment is initiated for a homeless client who reports feeling sad and depressed and has only had 4 hours of sleep in the past 2 days?

• A. Allow the client to rest and sleep.
• B. Ensure the client attends groups addressing coping skills for dealing with depression.
• C. Begin planning for the client’s discharge.
• D. Encourage verbalization of feelings.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A: Addressing the client’s immediate need for rest and sleep is crucial for stabilization and recovery. It is essential to prioritize the client's physical well-being and provide the opportunity for adequate rest. B: Group therapy and coping skills are important but secondary to ensuring immediate needs are met. C: Discharge planning is important but should follow stabilization of the client’s immediate needs. D: Encouraging verbalization of feelings is supportive but not as urgent as addressing basic needs like rest.

4. A female client with a history of major depressive disorder is experiencing a worsening of symptoms. Which statement by the client indicates a potential risk for suicide?

• A. “I’ve been feeling more tired than usual.”
• B. “I’ve been thinking about how much better everyone would be without me.”
• C. “I’ve been having trouble sleeping lately.”
• D. “I feel like I can’t handle everything.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client’s statement about thinking that everyone would be better off without her indicates suicidal ideation. This statement is a significant warning sign for suicide risk and requires immediate intervention. Choices A, C, and D reflect common symptoms of depression but do not directly indicate suicidal thoughts or intentions. Feeling tired, having trouble sleeping, and feeling overwhelmed are typical symptoms of major depressive disorder but do not necessarily suggest an imminent risk of suicide like the statement in option B does.

5. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse’s station in a literally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
• B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
• C. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.
• D. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia. The client's symptoms of body contortion and feeling like a monster are indicative of acute dystonia, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone. Benztropine can help alleviate these acute dystonic reactions. Choice A is incorrect because changing the antipsychotic medication at this point is not indicated. Choice B is not appropriate as the client's symptoms are likely due to acute dystonia rather than muscle spasms. Choice C is also not the best course of action as the client needs immediate intervention for the acute dystonic reaction.

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