the rn documents the mental status of a female client who has been hospitalized for several days by court order the client states i dont need to be he
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Quizlet HESI Mental Health

1. The RN documents the mental status of a female client who has been hospitalized for several days by court order. The client states, “I don’t need to be here,” and tells the RN that she believes that the TV talks to her. The RN should document these assessment statements in which section of the mental status exam?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's statement of not needing to be hospitalized and her belief that the TV talks to her indicate impaired insight and judgment. Insight and judgment evaluate the client's awareness of their condition and ability to make sound decisions. Mood and affect assess emotional state, remote memory evaluates recall of past events, and level of concentration assesses attention and focus. In this scenario, the client's lack of awareness of her need for hospitalization and presence of delusions about the TV speaking to her directly relate to insight and judgment, making choice A the correct option.

2. During admission to the psychiatric unit, a female client is extremely anxious and states that she is worried about the sun coming up the next day. What intervention is most important for the RN to implement during the admission process?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During admission to a psychiatric unit, it is crucial for the registered nurse to remain calm and use a matter-of-fact approach when addressing a client who is extremely anxious. By staying composed and adopting a matter-of-fact demeanor, the nurse can help establish trust and promote a sense of calm in the client. This approach can also convey a sense of reassurance and stability, which can be beneficial in managing the client's anxiety. Assisting the client in developing alternative coping skills (Choice A) may be important in the long term but is not the most immediate priority during the admission process. Asking the client why she is anxious (Choice C) may not be helpful at this moment as the client may not be able to articulate the specific reasons due to her heightened anxiety. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice D) should not be the initial intervention as it does not address the underlying cause of the anxiety and should be considered only if other non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective.

3. A client is being treated with a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constipation and urinary retention. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are known to have anticholinergic side effects, which include constipation and urinary retention. These side effects occur due to the inhibition of cholinergic receptors, leading to decreased gastrointestinal motility and relaxation of the detrusor muscle in the bladder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight loss, sedation, blurred vision, insomnia, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the use of TCAs. Monitoring for constipation and urinary retention is essential to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety.

4. A client with a history of substance abuse is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a new illness. Which of the following is the most important to assess upon admission?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the history of recent drug use is crucial when admitting a client with a history of substance abuse. Understanding recent drug use helps in managing potential withdrawal symptoms, preventing drug interactions with the new treatment, and ensuring appropriate care. Assessing current employment status (choice B) is important for social and financial support but is not as crucial as assessing recent drug use in this scenario. Family history of mental illness (choice C) and recent weight changes (choice D) are also important aspects of assessment but are not as immediate and critical as evaluating recent drug use in a client with a history of substance abuse.

5. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best intervention for a male client with schizophrenia displaying echolalia, which is disruptive to others, is for the nurse to escort the client to his room. Echolalia, the constant repetition of others' words, can be disruptive in a communal setting. By guiding the client to a private space like his room, the nurse helps manage the behavior without isolating or medicating the client unnecessarily. Avoiding acknowledging the behavior (Choice A) does not address the issue, isolating the client (Choice B) may exacerbate feelings of exclusion, and administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be reserved for situations where there is imminent risk or severe agitation, not for managing echolalia.

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