the rn documents the mental status of a female client who has been hospitalized for several days by court order the client states i dont need to be he
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HESI RN

Quizlet HESI Mental Health

1. The RN documents the mental status of a female client who has been hospitalized for several days by court order. The client states, “I don’t need to be here,” and tells the RN that she believes that the TV talks to her. The RN should document these assessment statements in which section of the mental status exam?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's statement of not needing to be hospitalized and her belief that the TV talks to her indicate impaired insight and judgment. Insight and judgment evaluate the client's awareness of their condition and ability to make sound decisions. Mood and affect assess emotional state, remote memory evaluates recall of past events, and level of concentration assesses attention and focus. In this scenario, the client's lack of awareness of her need for hospitalization and presence of delusions about the TV speaking to her directly relate to insight and judgment, making choice A the correct option.

2. During a group session on anger management, a male adolescent client is fidgety, interrupts peers, and talks about his pets at home. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best nursing action in this scenario is to redirect the client by encouraging him to read from the handout. This approach helps refocus the client's attention on the topic being discussed, which is anger management. Choice A is not appropriate as it may disrupt the group session and does not address the client's behavior. Choice B, while important in understanding the client's background, does not address the immediate disruptive behavior. Choice C involves others to manage the client's behavior instead of direct intervention by the nurse, which may not be effective in this situation.

3. A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) engages in repetitive hand washing that lasts for several hours. Which strategy should the nurse use to manage this behavior?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), it's crucial to gradually reduce the compulsive behavior to help the client learn to manage anxiety in a structured manner. Encouraging the client to continue the behavior (Choice A) would reinforce the cycle of compulsions. While establishing a routine schedule (Choice B) may provide some structure, it doesn't address the core issue of excessive hand washing. Ignoring the behavior (Choice D) may lead to worsening symptoms and does not help the client in managing their OCD effectively.

4. A male hospital employee is pushed out of the way by a female employee because of an oncoming gurney. The pushed employee becomes very angry and swings at the female employee. Both employees are referred for counseling with the staff psychiatric nurse. Which factor in the pushed employee’s history is most related to the reaction that occurred?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Was physically abused by his mother.' The pushed employee's aggressive reaction can be attributed to his history of physical abuse. Research suggests that individuals who have experienced physical abuse may exhibit heightened aggressive responses due to trauma and learned behavior. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A is a stereotype-based assumption that does not have a direct correlation with the aggressive behavior observed; B, torturing animals, is concerning behavior but not directly linked to the aggressive response in this scenario; D, hating to be touched, is not the most relevant factor considering the situation described.

5. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

Similar Questions

While sitting in the day room of the mental health unit, a male adolescent avoids eye contact, looks at the floor, and talks softly when interacting verbally with the RN. The two trade places, and the RN demonstrates the client's behaviors. What is the main goal of this therapeutic technique?
A healthcare professional is assessing a client for symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which symptom should the healthcare professional expect to find?
A female client, who is wearing dirty clothes and has a foul body odor, comes to the clinic reporting feeling scared because she is being stalked. What should the nurse do first?
A male client with schizophrenia tells the RN that he is being watched and that the television is speaking directly to him. Which response by the RN is appropriate?
A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?

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