Nursing Elites

1. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?

• A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
• B. Administer a PRN sedative.
• C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.

2. The client is being educated by the healthcare provider about starting a prescribed abstinence therapy with disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client understand?

• A. Maintain complete abstinence from alcohol consumption.
• B. Stay alcohol-free for at least 12 hours before the first dose.
• C. Participate in monthly therapy sessions.
• D. Disclose to others that he is receiving disulfiram therapy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Before starting disulfiram therapy (Antabuse), the client must comprehend the need to remain alcohol-free for a minimum of 12 hours. This is crucial to prevent the unpleasant and potentially dangerous reactions that can occur with concurrent alcohol consumption while on disulfiram. Choice A is incorrect because it mentions heroin or cocaine use, which is not the primary focus when initiating disulfiram therapy. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests therapy sessions, which are not specifically required before starting disulfiram. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to disclose disulfiram therapy to others, but rather to adhere to the abstinence requirement.

3. A female client engages in repeated checks of door and window locks, behavior that prevents her from arriving on time and interferes with her ability to function effectively. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Discuss why the client checks the locks frequently
• B. Ask the client why she checks the locks
• C. Plan a daily list of activities to be carried out
• D. Determine the type and size of the locks

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ask the client why she checks the locks. By doing so, the nurse can help the client gain insight into the underlying anxiety that drives this behavior and assist her in developing new adaptive coping strategies. Choice A is not as effective as directly asking the client about her behavior. Choice C focuses on planning activities but does not address the root cause of the client's behavior. Choice D is irrelevant to addressing the client's repeated checking behavior.

4. The RN is admitting a male client who takes lithium carbonate (Eskalith) twice a day. Which information should the RN report to the HCP immediately?

• A. Short-term memory loss.
• B. Five-pound weight gain.
• C. Decreased affect.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are signs of potential lithium toxicity, which is a serious condition requiring immediate attention. These symptoms can indicate a dangerous level of lithium in the body that can lead to severe complications. Short-term memory loss (A), five-pound weight gain (B), and decreased affect (C) are important to monitor but are not as immediately concerning as symptoms of potential toxicity like nausea and vomiting.

5. A client who is admitted with a closed head injury after a fall has a blood alcohol level (BAL) of 0.28 (28%) and is difficult to arouse. Which intervention during the first 6 hours following admission should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. Place in a side-lying position with head of bed elevated.
• B. Administer disulfiram (Antabuse) immediately
• C. Give lorazepam (Ativan) PRN for signs of withdrawal.
• D. Provide thiamine and folate supplements as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Maintain the patient's airway is the priority for a client who is intoxicated and obtunded.

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