Nursing Elites

1. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?

• A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
• B. Administer a PRN sedative.
• C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.

2. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing behavioral therapy. Which outcome should the nurse recognize as an indication that the client is responding positively to therapy?

• A. The client reports increased frequency of obsessive thoughts.
• B. The client demonstrates a decrease in compulsive behaviors.
• C. The client expresses a desire to leave therapy early.
• D. The client avoids participating in exposure tasks.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A decrease in compulsive behaviors is a positive response to behavioral therapy for OCD. Behavioral therapy aims to reduce these behaviors and promote healthier coping mechanisms. Option A, reporting an increased frequency of obsessive thoughts, would indicate a lack of improvement or worsening of symptoms. Option C, expressing a desire to leave therapy early, suggests resistance or dissatisfaction with therapy. Option D, avoiding participation in exposure tasks, goes against the principles of exposure therapy, which is commonly used in OCD treatment to help clients confront their fears and reduce anxiety.

3. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Decrease in manic episodes.
• B. Improvement in depressive symptoms.
• C. Reduction in anxiety symptoms.
• D. Increased sleep duration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.

4. The mental health team is determining treatment options for a male patient experiencing psychotic symptoms. Which question(s) should the team answer to determine whether a community outpatient or inpatient setting is most appropriate? Select all that apply.

• A. Is the patient expressing suicidal thoughts?
• B. Does the patient have experiences with either community or inpatient mental healthcare facilities?
• C. Does the patient require a therapeutic environment to support the management of psychotic symptoms?
• D. Is the patient experiencing delusions or hallucinations?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To determine whether a community outpatient or inpatient setting is most appropriate for a patient experiencing psychotic symptoms, it is crucial to consider if the patient has had experiences with either community or inpatient mental healthcare facilities. This helps assess the familiarity and comfort level of the patient in those settings, aiding in decision-making regarding the level of care needed. Choice A, addressing suicidal thoughts, is important for risk assessment and safety planning but does not directly help in determining the setting appropriateness between community outpatient or inpatient care. Choice C, about the need for a therapeutic environment, is significant but does not specifically assist in deciding between outpatient or inpatient care. Choice D, related to delusions or hallucinations, is relevant in assessing the symptomatology but does not directly guide the choice between community outpatient or inpatient care.

5. An adolescent client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for self-harming behaviors. Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention?

• A. Assess the client’s suicidal ideation.
• B. Educate the client about healthy coping mechanisms.
• C. Encourage family therapy sessions.
• D. Provide a safe environment free of potential self-harm tools.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for an adolescent admitted for self-harming behaviors is to provide a safe environment free of potential self-harm tools. This intervention aims to prevent immediate harm to the client. Assessing suicidal ideation is important but ensuring physical safety takes precedence. While educating about healthy coping mechanisms is crucial for long-term management, immediate safety is the priority. Family therapy sessions are beneficial for holistic care but are not the immediate priority when the client's safety is at risk.

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