Nursing Elites

1. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?

• A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
• B. Administer a PRN sedative.
• C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.

2. Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a 'moody child' with an onset of odd behavior around age 14, which caused him to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert's early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:

• A. Favorable with medication
• B. In the relapse stage
• C. Improvable with psychosocial interventions
• D. To have a less positive outcome

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of early and slow onset of schizophrenia, the prognosis is generally less positive. This means that the outlook for individuals like Gilbert, who showed signs of schizophrenia at a young age, is often poorer. Option A is incorrect because while medication can help manage symptoms, the overall prognosis is still less favorable. Option B is incorrect since relapse stage typically refers to a period of worsening symptoms after initial improvement. Option C is incorrect because while psychosocial interventions can be beneficial, the underlying early and slow onset of schizophrenia indicates a less positive outcome.

3. A mental health worker is caring for a client with escalating aggressive behavior. Which action by the mental health worker warrants immediate intervention by the RN?

• A. Attempting to physically restrain the client.
• B. Remaining at a distance of 4 feet from the client.
• C. Telling the client to go to the quiet area of the unit.
• D. Using a loud voice to communicate with the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Attempting to physically restrain the client without proper protocol and preparation can escalate the situation. This can lead to increased agitation and aggression in the client, potentially putting both the client and the mental health worker at risk. Remaining at a distance, directing the client to a quiet area, or using a loud voice are all strategies that can be used to de-escalate the situation and ensure safety without resorting to physical intervention. Therefore, the immediate intervention is needed when the mental health worker attempts to physically restrain the client. Option B, remaining at a distance, is a safe practice to ensure personal safety. Option C, directing the client to a quiet area, is a de-escalation technique to create a calmer environment. Option D, using a loud voice, may be necessary to establish boundaries and ensure the client can hear instructions clearly.

4. Pablo is a homeless adult who has no family connections. Pablo passed out on the street, and emergency medical services took him to the hospital where he expresses a wish to die. The physician recognizes evidence of substance use problems and mental health issues and recommends inpatient treatment for Pablo. What is the rationale for this treatment choice? Select all that apply.

• A. Intermittent supervision is available in inpatient settings.
• B. He requires stabilization of multiple symptoms.
• C. He has nutritional and self-care needs.
• D. Medication adherence will be mandated.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In inpatient settings, there is continuous supervision available, ensuring safety and comprehensive care for individuals like Pablo who may be at risk due to substance use problems, mental health issues, and expressing a wish to die. Choice B is incorrect because the need for stabilization of multiple symptoms alone is not the primary rationale for inpatient treatment. Choice C is incorrect as although self-care and nutritional needs are important, they do not solely justify inpatient treatment. Choice D is incorrect because while medication adherence can be monitored in inpatient settings, it is not the primary rationale for choosing inpatient treatment for Pablo in this scenario.

5. The nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is exhibiting symptoms of paranoia. Which behavior would the nurse most likely observe?

• A. The client is seen as unmotivated and withdrawn.
• B. The client is preoccupied with a fear of being harmed.
• C. The client displays a blunted affect and lacks emotional response.
• D. The client avoids group activities and shows decreased appetite.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with paranoia, they typically exhibit an intense fear of being harmed, persecuted, or targeted by others. This fear often dominates their thoughts and can significantly impact their daily functioning and interactions. Choice A, being unmotivated and withdrawn, is more indicative of negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as avolition and social withdrawal. Choice C, displaying a blunted affect and lacking emotional response, is associated with flat affect, a symptom commonly seen in schizophrenia but not specific to paranoia. Choice D, avoiding group activities and showing decreased appetite, may be related to various symptoms or side effects, but it is not a defining characteristic of paranoia in schizophrenia.

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