Nursing Elites

1. The RN is leading a group on the inpatient psychiatric unit. Which approach should the RN use during the working phase of group development?

• A. Establishing a rapport with group members.
• B. Clarifying the nurse’s role and clients’ responsibilities.
• C. Discussing ways to use new coping skills learned.
• D. Helping clients identify areas of problems in their lives.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the working phase of group development, the focus should be on discussing and applying new coping skills to promote progress. This helps group members to practice and implement the skills they have learned, leading to positive outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are not ideal during the working phase. While establishing rapport is important, it is more relevant during the initial orientation phase. Clarifying roles and responsibilities is important at the beginning of group formation, and helping clients identify areas of problem in their lives is often part of the exploration phase, not the working phase.

2. A middle-aged female client with no previous psychiatric history is seen in the mental health clinic because her family describes her as having paranoid thoughts. On assessment, she tells the nurse, “I want to find out why these people are stalking me.” Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. It sounds like this experience is frightening for you.
• B. What makes you think people are stalking you?
• C. I know you are frightened, but no one is stalking you.
• D. Do you think someone is trying to harm you?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response for the nurse to provide is option A: 'It sounds like this experience is frightening for you.' This response acknowledges the client's feelings and emotions without directly challenging the delusion of being stalked. Option B is incorrect as it directly questions the client's belief, which can lead to increased defensiveness. Option C is incorrect as it denies the client's belief without addressing the underlying fear and can cause the client to feel misunderstood. Option D is incorrect as it directly asks about harm, which may not be the primary concern of the client at this moment.

3. The RN is preparing medications for a client with bipolar disorder and notices that the client discontinued antipsychotic medication for several days. Which medication should also be discontinued?

• A. Lithium (Lithotabs).
• B. Benztropine (Cogentin).
• C. Alprazolam (Xanax).
• D. Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Benztropine (Cogentin). Benztropine is commonly prescribed to manage side effects of antipsychotic medications. Therefore, if the antipsychotic medication is discontinued, there would be no need for Benztropine. Lithium is a mood stabilizer used in bipolar disorder, not directly related to antipsychotic use. Alprazolam is an anxiolytic, and Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia) is a laxative, neither of which is typically associated with antipsychotic medication use.

4. James is a 42-year-old patient with schizophrenia. He approaches you as you arrive for day shift and anxiously reports, 'Last night, demons came to my room and tried to rape me.' Which response would be most therapeutic?

• A. There are no such things as demons. What you saw were hallucinations.
• B. It is not possible for anyone to enter your room at night. You are safe here.
• C. You seem very upset. Please tell me more about what you experienced last night.
• D. That must have been very frightening, but we will check on you at night and you will be safe.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the most therapeutic response as it acknowledges the patient's feelings and encourages further exploration of their experience. By expressing empathy and inviting James to share more about what he experienced, it helps build trust and rapport. Choices A and B dismiss the patient's experience and can make them feel invalidated, which is not helpful in establishing a therapeutic relationship. Choice D acknowledges the fear but does not actively engage the patient in discussing their feelings and experiences, missing an opportunity for therapeutic communication.

5. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
• B. Isolate the client from other clients.
• C. Administer a PRN sedative.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best intervention for a male client with schizophrenia displaying echolalia, which is disruptive to others, is for the nurse to escort the client to his room. Echolalia, the constant repetition of others' words, can be disruptive in a communal setting. By guiding the client to a private space like his room, the nurse helps manage the behavior without isolating or medicating the client unnecessarily. Avoiding acknowledging the behavior (Choice A) does not address the issue, isolating the client (Choice B) may exacerbate feelings of exclusion, and administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be reserved for situations where there is imminent risk or severe agitation, not for managing echolalia.

Similar Questions