Nursing Elites

1. During an annual physical at the corporate clinic, a male employee expresses to the RN that his high-stress job is causing trouble in his personal life. He mentions getting so angry while driving to and from work that he has considered 'getting even' with other drivers. How should the RN respond?

• A. “Anger is contagious and could lead to major confrontations.”
• B. “Try not to let your anger cause you to act impulsively.”
• C. “Expressing your anger to a stranger could lead to an unsafe situation.”
• D. “It seems like there are many situations that make you feel angry.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response for the RN is to advise the employee not to act impulsively when feeling angry. This approach helps the individual learn to manage anger in a constructive manner, reducing the likelihood of potential conflicts. Choice A is incorrect because although acknowledging that anger can escalate into confrontations is valid, it does not provide immediate guidance on managing the anger. Choice C focuses on the dangers of expressing anger to strangers but does not address the core issue of managing anger. Choice D simply acknowledges the employee's feelings without providing guidance on how to address the situation effectively.

2. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is exhibiting symptoms of mania. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
• B. Provide a calm and structured environment.
• C. Limit stimulation and set firm limits on behavior.
• D. Promote self-care and hygiene practices.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder is experiencing symptoms of mania, the most appropriate intervention for the nurse is to limit stimulation and set firm limits on behavior. This approach helps in managing the manic episode by preventing further escalation. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice A) may not be effective during the acute phase of mania, as the client may have difficulty focusing or following group discussions. Providing a calm and structured environment (Choice B) is beneficial, but setting firm limits is crucial to managing the impulsivity and risky behaviors associated with mania. Promoting self-care practices (Choice D) is important, but during a manic episode, setting limits and reducing stimuli take precedence over hygiene practices.

3. A client is being treated with a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Constipation and urinary retention.
• B. Increased appetite and weight loss.
• C. Sedation and blurred vision.
• D. Insomnia and dry mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constipation and urinary retention. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are known to have anticholinergic side effects, which include constipation and urinary retention. These side effects occur due to the inhibition of cholinergic receptors, leading to decreased gastrointestinal motility and relaxation of the detrusor muscle in the bladder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight loss, sedation, blurred vision, insomnia, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the use of TCAs. Monitoring for constipation and urinary retention is essential to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety.

4. A client with an eating disorder is being treated in a behavioral health unit. Which behavior would the nurse expect to see if the client is responding positively to the treatment?

• A. Adherence to the treatment plan and increased self-care activities.
• B. Increased isolation from others.
• C. Frequent complaining about treatment procedures.
• D. Refusal to eat meals provided by the unit.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive response to treatment for a client with an eating disorder is indicated by adherence to the treatment plan and an increase in self-care activities. These behaviors show that the client is actively engaging in their treatment and taking steps towards recovery. Option B, increased isolation from others, is not indicative of a positive response to treatment as it may suggest withdrawal or avoidance. Option C, frequent complaining about treatment procedures, is not a behavior that signifies a positive response; it may indicate dissatisfaction or discomfort with the treatment. Option D, refusal to eat meals provided by the unit, is also not a positive response as it could suggest continued resistance to treatment and potential worsening of symptoms.

5. A client in the emergency department presents with confusion, disorientation, and agitation after drinking alcohol. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate to assess for potential complications?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Electrolyte panel
• C. Liver function tests
• D. Urinalysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is an electrolyte panel. When a client presents with confusion, disorientation, and agitation after drinking alcohol, it indicates potential complications such as electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial in these cases to detect and address abnormalities that may result from alcohol intake. While a complete blood count (choice A) may provide some valuable information, it is not the primary test to assess for alcohol-related complications presenting with these symptoms. Liver function tests (choice C) are more specific for assessing liver damage due to chronic alcohol use rather than immediate complications. Urinalysis (choice D) may help detect some issues but is not the most appropriate initial test to assess for potential complications in this scenario.

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