Nursing Elites

1. A client with major depressive disorder is beginning a new antidepressant medication. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.”
• B. “You should see immediate effects of the medication.”
• C. “You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.”
• D. “Avoid discussing your symptoms with your therapist.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the discharge teaching for a client starting a new antidepressant medication is that “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.” This is because antidepressants often require several weeks before the individual starts to feel the full therapeutic effects. Choice B is incorrect because immediate effects are not typically seen with antidepressants. Choice C is incorrect as stopping the medication abruptly can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects. Choice D is incorrect as open communication with the therapist is crucial for effective management of major depressive disorder.

2. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

3. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is receiving a new prescription for fluoxetine (Prozac). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this medication?

• A. “I should begin feeling less anxious within a few weeks.”
• B. “The drug will help me control my compulsive behaviors.”
• C. “I will need to have a weekly blood test to check my liver function.”
• D. “I should avoid foods that contain tyramine while taking this medication.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fluoxetine, an SSRI, can help manage symptoms of OCD by assisting in controlling compulsive behaviors rather than directly reducing anxiety. The improvement in symptoms usually occurs over a few weeks. Choice A is incorrect as it provides a timeframe for anxiety improvement, which is not the primary goal of fluoxetine in OCD treatment. Choice C is incorrect as routine blood tests are not typically required with fluoxetine. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding tyramine-containing foods is more relevant for MAOIs, not SSRIs like fluoxetine.

4. A client with anorexia nervosa has a body mass index (BMI) of 16.5 and has been diagnosed with bradycardia. Which of the following findings should the RN be most concerned about?

• A. Body temperature of 96.8°F.
• B. Heart rate of 52 BPM.
• C. Serum potassium level of 4.1 mEq/L.
• D. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with anorexia nervosa and bradycardia, monitoring for ECG changes is crucial as these changes may indicate potentially life-threatening cardiac complications. While other findings like low body temperature, bradycardia, and serum potassium levels are concerning, ECG changes specifically reflect the impact of bradycardia on the heart's electrical activity and should be the priority for the nurse to assess and address.

5. A female client engages in repeated checks of door and window locks, behavior that prevents her from arriving on time and interferes with her ability to function effectively. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Discuss why the client checks the locks frequently
• B. Ask the client why she checks the locks
• C. Plan a daily list of activities to be carried out
• D. Determine the type and size of the locks

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ask the client why she checks the locks. By doing so, the nurse can help the client gain insight into the underlying anxiety that drives this behavior and assist her in developing new adaptive coping strategies. Choice A is not as effective as directly asking the client about her behavior. Choice C focuses on planning activities but does not address the root cause of the client's behavior. Choice D is irrelevant to addressing the client's repeated checking behavior.

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