Nursing Elites

1. A client with major depressive disorder is beginning a new antidepressant medication. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.”
• B. “You should see immediate effects of the medication.”
• C. “You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.”
• D. “Avoid discussing your symptoms with your therapist.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the discharge teaching for a client starting a new antidepressant medication is that “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.” This is because antidepressants often require several weeks before the individual starts to feel the full therapeutic effects. Choice B is incorrect because immediate effects are not typically seen with antidepressants. Choice C is incorrect as stopping the medication abruptly can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects. Choice D is incorrect as open communication with the therapist is crucial for effective management of major depressive disorder.

2. During an annual physical at the corporate clinic, a male employee expresses to the RN that his high-stress job is causing trouble in his personal life. He mentions getting so angry while driving to and from work that he has considered 'getting even' with other drivers. How should the RN respond?

• A. “Anger is contagious and could lead to major confrontations.”
• B. “Try not to let your anger cause you to act impulsively.”
• C. “Expressing your anger to a stranger could lead to an unsafe situation.”
• D. “It seems like there are many situations that make you feel angry.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response for the RN is to advise the employee not to act impulsively when feeling angry. This approach helps the individual learn to manage anger in a constructive manner, reducing the likelihood of potential conflicts. Choice A is incorrect because although acknowledging that anger can escalate into confrontations is valid, it does not provide immediate guidance on managing the anger. Choice C focuses on the dangers of expressing anger to strangers but does not address the core issue of managing anger. Choice D simply acknowledges the employee's feelings without providing guidance on how to address the situation effectively.

3. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

4. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric inpatient unit with a bandaged flesh wound after attempting to shoot himself. He was divorced one year ago, lost his job four months ago, and suffered a breakup of his current relationship last week. What is the most likely source of this client’s current feelings of depression?

• A. Feelings of frustration.
• B. A sense of loss.
• C. Poor self-esteem.
• D. A lack of intimate relationships.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's recent history of divorce, job loss, and breakup of a current relationship indicates a series of significant losses. These losses are likely the primary source of his feelings of depression, leading to a sense of loss. While feelings of frustration (choice A) and poor self-esteem (choice C) could be contributing factors, the immediate trigger for his current emotional state appears to be the series of losses. A lack of intimate relationships (choice D) may be a consequence of the client's depressive symptoms rather than the root cause in this scenario.

5. An elderly client diagnosed with delirium is being treated with antipsychotic medication. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Akathisia
• B. Hallucinations
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Drowsiness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should monitor for in an elderly client diagnosed with delirium and treated with antipsychotic medication is orthostatic hypotension. Antipsychotic medications can lead to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, particularly in elderly individuals. Akathisia (choice A) refers to a movement disorder characterized by a feeling of inner restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specific to elderly clients with delirium. Hallucinations (choice B) are sensory perceptions that appear real but are created by the mind, and while they can be associated with certain conditions or medications, they are not a common side effect of antipsychotic medications in elderly clients with delirium. Drowsiness (choice D) is a general CNS depressant effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications but is not the specific side effect that the nurse should be monitoring for in this case.

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