HESI RN
Quizlet Mental Health HESI
1. A client with major depressive disorder is beginning a new antidepressant medication. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.”
- B. “You should see immediate effects of the medication.”
- C. “You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.”
- D. “Avoid discussing your symptoms with your therapist.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the discharge teaching for a client starting a new antidepressant medication is that “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.” This is because antidepressants often require several weeks before the individual starts to feel the full therapeutic effects. Choice B is incorrect because immediate effects are not typically seen with antidepressants. Choice C is incorrect as stopping the medication abruptly can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects. Choice D is incorrect as open communication with the therapist is crucial for effective management of major depressive disorder.
2. A client with schizophrenia explains that she has 20 children and then very seriously points to the nurse and explains that she is one of them. What is the most therapeutic response for the nurse to provide?
- A. Let’s go ask another nurse if this is true.
- B. My name tag shows that I am a nurse here.
- C. I cannot possibly be one of your children.
- D. I know that you don’t have 20 children.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Option B, 'My name tag shows that I am a nurse here,' is the most appropriate response as it provides clear and factual information to help the client differentiate between reality and delusion. By pointing out a concrete piece of evidence, the nurse can gently guide the client back to reality without directly challenging or contradicting their belief. Option A, 'Let’s go ask another nurse if this is true,' delays addressing the issue and doesn't provide immediate clarification. Option C, 'I cannot possibly be one of your children,' directly contradicts the client's statement and may increase distress. Option D, 'I know that you don’t have 20 children,' does not address the client's belief and can be perceived as dismissive.
3. A client is being treated with a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Constipation and urinary retention.
- B. Increased appetite and weight loss.
- C. Sedation and blurred vision.
- D. Insomnia and dry mouth.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constipation and urinary retention. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are known to have anticholinergic side effects, which include constipation and urinary retention. These side effects occur due to the inhibition of cholinergic receptors, leading to decreased gastrointestinal motility and relaxation of the detrusor muscle in the bladder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight loss, sedation, blurred vision, insomnia, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the use of TCAs. Monitoring for constipation and urinary retention is essential to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety.
4. An adolescent client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for self-harming behaviors. Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention?
- A. Assess the client’s suicidal ideation.
- B. Educate the client about healthy coping mechanisms.
- C. Encourage family therapy sessions.
- D. Provide a safe environment free of potential self-harm tools.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for an adolescent admitted for self-harming behaviors is to provide a safe environment free of potential self-harm tools. This intervention aims to prevent immediate harm to the client. Assessing suicidal ideation is important but ensuring physical safety takes precedence. While educating about healthy coping mechanisms is crucial for long-term management, immediate safety is the priority. Family therapy sessions are beneficial for holistic care but are not the immediate priority when the client's safety is at risk.
5. A male client with bipolar disorder who began taking lithium carbonate five days ago is complaining of excessive thirst, and the RN finds him attempting to drink water from the bathroom sink faucet. Which intervention should the RN implement?
- A. Report the client’s serum lithium level to the healthcare provider (HCP).
- B. Encourage the client to suck on hard candy to relieve the symptoms.
- C. No action is needed since polydipsia is a common side effect.
- D. Tell the client that drinking from the faucet is not allowed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to suck on hard candy is the appropriate intervention in this situation. Excessive thirst is a common side effect of lithium therapy. Sucking on hard candy can help alleviate the symptom without posing any harm. Reporting the client's serum lithium level to the healthcare provider (Choice A) is not necessary at this point as the symptom of excessive thirst is a known side effect and does not indicate toxicity. No action is needed (Choice C) is incorrect because addressing the client's distress is essential. Telling the client that drinking from the faucet is not allowed (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue of excessive thirst and may cause further distress to the client.
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