HESI RN
Quizlet Mental Health HESI
1. A client with major depressive disorder is beginning a new antidepressant medication. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.”
- B. “You should see immediate effects of the medication.”
- C. “You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.”
- D. “Avoid discussing your symptoms with your therapist.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the discharge teaching for a client starting a new antidepressant medication is that “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.” This is because antidepressants often require several weeks before the individual starts to feel the full therapeutic effects. Choice B is incorrect because immediate effects are not typically seen with antidepressants. Choice C is incorrect as stopping the medication abruptly can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects. Choice D is incorrect as open communication with the therapist is crucial for effective management of major depressive disorder.
2. An elderly client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. Which assessment finding is most concerning for the nurse?
- A. Weight loss of 5 pounds in one week.
- B. Lack of interest in previously enjoyed activities.
- C. Disorganized speech and thought processes.
- D. Severe fatigue and low energy levels.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In an elderly client with major depressive disorder, disorganized speech and thought processes are the most concerning assessment findings for the nurse. These symptoms can suggest a more severe condition such as psychosis or cognitive impairment, which require immediate attention and intervention. While weight loss, lack of interest in activities, severe fatigue, and low energy levels are common symptoms of major depressive disorder, they do not pose an immediate risk as disorganized speech and thought processes do. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize addressing the disorganized speech and thought processes to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.
3. A male client with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that he needs to 'make some deals so that he can improve his retirement savings.' Based on this information, which client outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Delay business decisions until his mania subsides.
- B. Identify the feelings associated with his behaviors.
- C. Seek legal counsel when making business decisions.
- D. Describe why he is feeling fearful about his finances.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In individuals with bipolar disorder experiencing mania, impulsivity and poor judgment are common. Delaying business decisions until the mania subsides is crucial to prevent impulsive and potentially harmful financial choices. Choice B, identifying feelings associated with behaviors, may be important but does not directly address the immediate need to prevent risky financial decisions. Seeking legal counsel (Choice C) may be appropriate in some situations but is not the priority in managing acute mania. Describing why he feels fearful about finances (Choice D) is relevant for understanding emotions but does not address the immediate risk of impulsive financial actions during mania.
4. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement for a male client with schizophrenia who is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit?
- A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
- B. Isolate the client from other clients.
- C. Administer a PRN sedative.
- D. Escort the client to his room.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Echolalia, the constant repetition of what others are saying, can be disruptive to the therapeutic environment. The most appropriate intervention is to escort the client to his room. This action provides the client with a private space where he can engage in the behavior without disturbing other clients. Avoiding acknowledgment of the behavior (Choice A) may not address the issue and could lead to increased annoyance among other clients. Isolating the client (Choice B) may have negative psychological effects and should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for safety concerns. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be considered only as a last resort and if other de-escalation techniques have been unsuccessful.
5. A male hospital employee is pushed out of the way by a female employee because of an oncoming gurney. The pushed employee becomes very angry and swings at the female employee. Both employees are referred for counseling with the staff psychiatric nurse. Which factor in the pushed employee’s history is most related to the reaction that occurred?
- A. Is worried about losing his job to a woman.
- B. Tortured animals as a child.
- C. Was physically abused by his mother.
- D. Hates to be touched by anyone.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Was physically abused by his mother.' The pushed employee's aggressive reaction can be attributed to his history of physical abuse. Research suggests that individuals who have experienced physical abuse may exhibit heightened aggressive responses due to trauma and learned behavior. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A is a stereotype-based assumption that does not have a direct correlation with the aggressive behavior observed; B, torturing animals, is concerning behavior but not directly linked to the aggressive response in this scenario; D, hating to be touched, is not the most relevant factor considering the situation described.
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