HESI RN
Quizlet Mental Health HESI
1. A client with major depressive disorder is beginning a new antidepressant medication. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.”
- B. “You should see immediate effects of the medication.”
- C. “You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.”
- D. “Avoid discussing your symptoms with your therapist.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the discharge teaching for a client starting a new antidepressant medication is that “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.” This is because antidepressants often require several weeks before the individual starts to feel the full therapeutic effects. Choice B is incorrect because immediate effects are not typically seen with antidepressants. Choice C is incorrect as stopping the medication abruptly can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects. Choice D is incorrect as open communication with the therapist is crucial for effective management of major depressive disorder.
2. A male client approaches the RN with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, “My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out!” The RN recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?
- A. Denial.
- B. Projection.
- C. Rationalization.
- D. Splitting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Projection. Projection involves attributing one's own unacceptable feelings or thoughts to others, as seen in the client’s accusations of his roommate’s behavior. In this scenario, the client is projecting his own anger and potential for violence onto his roommate. Choice A, Denial, involves refusing to acknowledge some aspect of reality, which is not evident in the scenario. Choice C, Rationalization, is a defense mechanism where logical reasons are given to justify behaviors that are actually based on unacceptable motives, which is not demonstrated by the client's behavior. Choice D, Splitting, is a defense mechanism where a person sees others as all good or all bad, not applicable in this case as the client is not portraying extreme views of his roommate.
3. A client with schizophrenia is being discharged home after an extended stay in a psychiatric hospital. Which statement by the client indicates that further teaching about medication management is needed?
- A. “I will take my medication only when I feel like it.”
- B. “I need to follow up with my psychiatrist regularly.”
- C. “I will notify my healthcare provider if I experience side effects.”
- D. “I should avoid alcohol while on my medication.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. This statement indicates a lack of understanding about medication management for schizophrenia. Medications for schizophrenia should be taken consistently as prescribed for optimal effectiveness, regardless of how the client feels. Choice B is a correct statement as regular follow-up with a psychiatrist is important for monitoring progress and adjusting treatment. Choice C demonstrates good awareness of potential side effects and the need for communication with healthcare providers. Choice D reflects appropriate knowledge as alcohol can interact with medications and may reduce their effectiveness.
4. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
- B. Isolate the client from other clients.
- C. Administer a PRN sedative.
- D. Escort the client to his room.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best intervention for a male client with schizophrenia displaying echolalia, which is disruptive to others, is for the nurse to escort the client to his room. Echolalia, the constant repetition of others' words, can be disruptive in a communal setting. By guiding the client to a private space like his room, the nurse helps manage the behavior without isolating or medicating the client unnecessarily. Avoiding acknowledging the behavior (Choice A) does not address the issue, isolating the client (Choice B) may exacerbate feelings of exclusion, and administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be reserved for situations where there is imminent risk or severe agitation, not for managing echolalia.
5. An RN is providing education to the family of a client diagnosed with schizophrenia who is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). The RN should instruct the family to report which symptom immediately?
- A. Sore throat
- B. Weight loss
- C. Constipation
- D. Lightheadedness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sore throat. Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a significant decrease in white blood cells. A sore throat can be an early sign of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of clozapine. The family should report this symptom immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight loss, constipation, and lightheadedness are not typically associated with the serious adverse effect of agranulocytosis related to clozapine therapy.
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