HESI RN
Quizlet Mental Health HESI
1. A client with major depressive disorder is beginning a new antidepressant medication. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.”
- B. “You should see immediate effects of the medication.”
- C. “You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.”
- D. “Avoid discussing your symptoms with your therapist.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the discharge teaching for a client starting a new antidepressant medication is that “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.” This is because antidepressants often require several weeks before the individual starts to feel the full therapeutic effects. Choice B is incorrect because immediate effects are not typically seen with antidepressants. Choice C is incorrect as stopping the medication abruptly can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects. Choice D is incorrect as open communication with the therapist is crucial for effective management of major depressive disorder.
2. A young adult male is hospitalized due to depression and an attempted suicide. The client reports that he lost his job and was angry with his employer for firing him when he took an overdose of pain medications. Which behavior best indicates to the nurse that his condition is improving?
- A. Initiates interactions with other clients.
- B. Describes verbally when he is angry.
- C. Participates in a job search with a social worker.
- D. Denies plans to harm himself or others.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best indicator of improvement in a client with depression is initiating interactions with others. This behavior demonstrates that the client is becoming less withdrawn and more self-directed, showing an improvement in social engagement and coping mechanisms. Choice B, describing anger verbally, may show some progress in emotional expression but does not necessarily indicate overall improvement in depression. Choice C, participating in a job search with a social worker, may be positive but does not directly address social interactions, which are crucial for improving depression. Choice D, denying plans to harm himself or others, is important for safety but does not directly reflect improvement in the client's social functioning or coping skills.
3. A male client with schizophrenia tells the RN that he is being watched and that the television is speaking directly to him. Which response by the RN is appropriate?
- A. “The television cannot speak to you.”
- B. “That sounds very frightening for you.”
- C. “You should ignore the television.”
- D. “Why do you think the television is talking to you?”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Option B is the correct response because it acknowledges the client's feelings and demonstrates empathy. By stating that the situation sounds frightening, the RN validates the client's experience without denying or reinforcing the delusion. This approach helps build rapport and trust with the client, which is essential in therapeutic communication. Options A and C are dismissive and may invalidate the client's experience, potentially worsening the trust relationship. Option D is confrontational and may make the client defensive, hindering effective communication and rapport-building.
4. Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a 'moody child' with an onset of odd behavior around age 14, which caused him to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert's early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:
- A. Favorable with medication
- B. In the relapse stage
- C. Improvable with psychosocial interventions
- D. To have a less positive outcome
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In cases of early and slow onset of schizophrenia, the prognosis is generally less positive. This means that the outlook for individuals like Gilbert, who showed signs of schizophrenia at a young age, is often poorer. Option A is incorrect because while medication can help manage symptoms, the overall prognosis is still less favorable. Option B is incorrect since relapse stage typically refers to a period of worsening symptoms after initial improvement. Option C is incorrect because while psychosocial interventions can be beneficial, the underlying early and slow onset of schizophrenia indicates a less positive outcome.
5. A client on the mental health unit is becoming more agitated, shouting at the staff, and pacing in the hallway. When a PRN medication is offered, the client refuses the medication and defiantly sits on the floor in the middle of the unit hallway. What nursing intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Transport the client to the seclusion room.
- B. Quietly approach the client with additional staff members.
- C. Take other clients in the area to the client lounge.
- D. Administer medication to chemically restrain the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In situations where a client is agitated and refusing medication, a non-confrontational approach with additional staff can help de-escalate the situation and address the client's behavior safely. Transporting the client to the seclusion room (Choice A) should not be the initial intervention unless the client poses an immediate risk of harm to themselves or others. Taking other clients to the client lounge (Choice C) does not directly address the agitated client's behavior. Administering medication to chemically restrain the client (Choice D) should only be considered after other de-escalation attempts have been made and if there is a significant safety concern.
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