HESI RN
Quizlet Mental Health HESI
1. A client with major depressive disorder is beginning a new antidepressant medication. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.”
- B. “You should see immediate effects of the medication.”
- C. “You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.”
- D. “Avoid discussing your symptoms with your therapist.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the discharge teaching for a client starting a new antidepressant medication is that “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.” This is because antidepressants often require several weeks before the individual starts to feel the full therapeutic effects. Choice B is incorrect because immediate effects are not typically seen with antidepressants. Choice C is incorrect as stopping the medication abruptly can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects. Choice D is incorrect as open communication with the therapist is crucial for effective management of major depressive disorder.
2. When preparing to administer a prescribed medication to a homeless male at a community psychiatric clinic, the client tells the nurse that he usually takes a different dosage. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Tell him to take the medication then verify the dosage at the next healthcare team meeting.
- B. Withhold the medication until the dosage can be confirmed.
- C. Inform him that he may refuse the medication and document whether or not he takes it.
- D. Explain to the client that the dosage has been changed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Withholding the medication until the dosage can be confirmed ensures patient safety and accuracy in treatment.
3. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?
- A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
- B. Administer a PRN sedative.
- C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
- D. Escort the client to his room.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.
4. A female client with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is admitted to the hospital for a cardiac catheterization. The afternoon before the procedure, the client begins to keep detailed notes of the nursing care she is receiving and reports her findings to the RN at bedtime. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Explain to the client that her behavior invades the rights of the nursing staff.
- B. Ask the client to explain why she is keeping a detailed record of her nursing care.
- C. Teach the client strategies to control her obsessive-compulsive behavior.
- D. Encourage the client to express her feelings regarding the upcoming procedure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Asking the client to explain why she is keeping a detailed record of her nursing care is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation. Understanding the client’s motivations for keeping detailed records can provide insight into her obsessive-compulsive behaviors and help manage them effectively. This approach allows for a non-confrontational exploration of the behavior. Choice A is incorrect because it may be perceived as confrontational and does not address the underlying reasons for the behavior. Choice C is incorrect because teaching strategies to control behavior should come after understanding the client's motives. Choice D is incorrect as it does not directly address the behavior of keeping detailed records, which is the immediate concern that needs to be addressed.
5. What intervention is likely to be most effective in returning a middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder who suffers from psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and amotivation to a normal level of functioning?
- A. Encourage the client to exercise.
- B. Suggest that the client develop a list of pleasurable activities.
- C. Provide education on methods to enhance sleep.
- D. Teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most effective intervention for a middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder experiencing psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and amotivation is to teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities. This intervention helps combat the symptoms by providing a routine and purpose to the client's day, addressing the issues of psychomotor retardation and amotivation. Structured activities can help establish a sense of normalcy, improve motivation, and regulate sleep patterns. Encouraging exercise (Choice A) can be beneficial but may be challenging for a client experiencing psychomotor retardation. Developing a list of pleasurable activities (Choice B) may not address the need for structure and routine in the client's daily life. Providing education on sleep enhancement methods (Choice C) is important but may not be sufficient to address the overall functional impairment in this case.
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