Nursing Elites

1. When preparing to administer a prescribed medication to a homeless male at a community psychiatric clinic, the client tells the nurse that he usually takes a different dosage. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Tell him to take the medication then verify the dosage at the next healthcare team meeting.
• B. Withhold the medication until the dosage can be confirmed.
• C. Inform him that he may refuse the medication and document whether or not he takes it.
• D. Explain to the client that the dosage has been changed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Withholding the medication until the dosage can be confirmed ensures patient safety and accuracy in treatment.

2. A client with major depressive disorder is beginning a new antidepressant medication. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.”
• B. “You should see immediate effects of the medication.”
• C. “You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.”
• D. “Avoid discussing your symptoms with your therapist.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the discharge teaching for a client starting a new antidepressant medication is that “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.” This is because antidepressants often require several weeks before the individual starts to feel the full therapeutic effects. Choice B is incorrect because immediate effects are not typically seen with antidepressants. Choice C is incorrect as stopping the medication abruptly can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects. Choice D is incorrect as open communication with the therapist is crucial for effective management of major depressive disorder.

3. Which therapeutic communication statement might a psychiatric-mental health registered nurse use when a patient's nursing diagnosis is altered thought processes?

• A. I know you say you hear voices, but I cannot hear them.
• B. Stop listening to the voices, they are NOT real.
• C. You say you hear voices, what are they telling you?
• D. Please tell the voices to leave you alone for now.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because it acknowledges the patient's experience of hearing voices, showing empathy and exploring the content of the hallucinations. This type of therapeutic communication encourages the patient to express their thoughts and feelings without judgment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they either deny the patient's experience, dismiss the hallucinations as not real, or suggest eliminating them, which can be perceived as invalidating the patient's feelings and experiences.

4. A client who has a history of bipolar disorder is recovering from a manic episode and is now experiencing depressive symptoms. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
• B. Provide a detailed schedule of daily activities.
• C. Discuss the importance of medication adherence.
• D. Encourage the client to engage in group therapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for suicidal ideation is the priority when a client with bipolar disorder is transitioning from a manic episode to a depressive phase. Suicidal ideation is a critical concern during depressive episodes, and ensuring the client's safety is the top priority. Providing a detailed schedule of daily activities (Choice B) may be helpful but is not the immediate priority over assessing for suicidal ideation. Discussing the importance of medication adherence (Choice C) and encouraging group therapy (Choice D) are essential components of care but are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the context of potential suicidal ideation.

5. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?

• A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
• B. Administer a PRN sedative.
• C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.

Similar Questions