Nursing Elites

1. What intervention is likely to be most effective in returning a middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder who suffers from psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and amotivation to a normal level of functioning?

• A. Encourage the client to exercise.
• B. Suggest that the client develop a list of pleasurable activities.
• C. Provide education on methods to enhance sleep.
• D. Teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most effective intervention for a middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder experiencing psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and amotivation is to teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities. This intervention helps combat the symptoms by providing a routine and purpose to the client's day, addressing the issues of psychomotor retardation and amotivation. Structured activities can help establish a sense of normalcy, improve motivation, and regulate sleep patterns. Encouraging exercise (Choice A) can be beneficial but may be challenging for a client experiencing psychomotor retardation. Developing a list of pleasurable activities (Choice B) may not address the need for structure and routine in the client's daily life. Providing education on sleep enhancement methods (Choice C) is important but may not be sufficient to address the overall functional impairment in this case.

2. The RN is preparing medications for a client with bipolar disorder and notices that the client discontinued antipsychotic medication for several days. Which medication should also be discontinued?

• A. Lithium (Lithotabs).
• B. Benztropine (Cogentin).
• C. Alprazolam (Xanax).
• D. Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Benztropine (Cogentin). Benztropine is commonly prescribed to manage side effects of antipsychotic medications. Therefore, if the antipsychotic medication is discontinued, there would be no need for Benztropine. Lithium is a mood stabilizer used in bipolar disorder, not directly related to antipsychotic use. Alprazolam is an anxiolytic, and Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia) is a laxative, neither of which is typically associated with antipsychotic medication use.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being discharged home after an extended stay in a psychiatric hospital. Which statement by the client indicates that further teaching about medication management is needed?

• A. “I will take my medication only when I feel like it.”
• B. “I need to follow up with my psychiatrist regularly.”
• C. “I will notify my healthcare provider if I experience side effects.”
• D. “I should avoid alcohol while on my medication.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. This statement indicates a lack of understanding about medication management for schizophrenia. Medications for schizophrenia should be taken consistently as prescribed for optimal effectiveness, regardless of how the client feels. Choice B is a correct statement as regular follow-up with a psychiatrist is important for monitoring progress and adjusting treatment. Choice C demonstrates good awareness of potential side effects and the need for communication with healthcare providers. Choice D reflects appropriate knowledge as alcohol can interact with medications and may reduce their effectiveness.

4. A client with a recent diagnosis of bipolar disorder is attending a support group for the first time. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further education about the disorder?

• A. “I will make sure to take my medications every day.”
• B. “I will avoid high-stress situations whenever possible.”
• C. “I know I can stop my medications when I am feeling better.”
• D. “I should monitor my mood changes closely.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it shows a misconception about bipolar disorder treatment. Stopping medications when feeling better can lead to a relapse or worsening of symptoms. Choice A is correct because medication adherence is crucial in managing bipolar disorder. Choice B is also a good strategy as stress management is important in symptom control. Choice D is a proactive approach to self-awareness and can help in recognizing early signs of mood changes.

5. April, a 10-year-old admitted to inpatient pediatric care, has been getting more and more wound up and is losing self-control in the day room. Time-out does not appear to be an effective tool for April to engage in self-reflection. April’s mother admits to putting her in time-out up to 20 times a day. The nurse recognizes that:

• A. Time-out is an important part of April's baseline discipline.
• B. Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.
• C. April enjoys time-out and acts out to get some alone time.
• D. Time-out will need to be replaced with seclusion and restraint.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.' In this scenario, the excessive use of time-out, up to 20 times a day, indicates that it is no longer effective in helping April self-reflect and control her behavior. Constant use of time-out without achieving the desired outcome suggests the need for alternative therapeutic interventions. Choice A is incorrect because the situation described indicates that time-out is not serving its intended purpose. Choice C is also incorrect as the behavior is not driven by a desire for alone time. Choice D is incorrect and inappropriate as seclusion and restraint should only be considered as a last resort and are not indicated based on the information provided.

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