Nursing Elites

1. What intervention is likely to be most effective in returning a middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder who suffers from psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and amotivation to a normal level of functioning?

• A. Encourage the client to exercise.
• B. Suggest that the client develop a list of pleasurable activities.
• C. Provide education on methods to enhance sleep.
• D. Teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most effective intervention for a middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder experiencing psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and amotivation is to teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities. This intervention helps combat the symptoms by providing a routine and purpose to the client's day, addressing the issues of psychomotor retardation and amotivation. Structured activities can help establish a sense of normalcy, improve motivation, and regulate sleep patterns. Encouraging exercise (Choice A) can be beneficial but may be challenging for a client experiencing psychomotor retardation. Developing a list of pleasurable activities (Choice B) may not address the need for structure and routine in the client's daily life. Providing education on sleep enhancement methods (Choice C) is important but may not be sufficient to address the overall functional impairment in this case.

2. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse’s station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
• B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
• C. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.
• D. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is experiencing a dystonic reaction due to dopamine depletion, which is a known side effect of Risperidone. Dystonia presents as abnormal muscle contractions and postures. The immediate management for this side effect is the administration of an anticholinergic medication like Benztropine (Cogentin). Choice A is incorrect as thioridazine is not the recommended medication for dystonic reactions. Choice B is incorrect as a hot pack would not effectively address the underlying cause of the dystonic reaction. Choice D is incorrect as occupational therapy is not the appropriate intervention for managing acute dystonia.

3. A female client, who is wearing dirty clothes and has a foul body odor, comes to the clinic reporting feeling scared because she is being stalked. What action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Assure the client that she will be seen by a healthcare provider today.
• B. Recommend that the client speaks with a social worker.
• C. Ask the client if she feels comfortable sharing why she is being stalked.
• D. Offer the client a safe place to relax before interviewing her.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to offer the client a safe place to relax before interviewing her. The client's disheveled appearance and foul body odor suggest she may be in distress or facing challenging circumstances. By providing her with a safe and comfortable environment to relax, the nurse can help alleviate some of her distress and establish trust. This approach is crucial as the client is already feeling scared due to being stalked, indicating underlying mental health concerns. Assuring the client that she will be seen by a healthcare provider today (choice A) may not address her immediate need for safety and comfort. Recommending she speaks with a social worker (choice B) may be beneficial later but does not address the immediate need for a safe space. Asking the client if she feels comfortable sharing why she is being stalked (choice C) is not appropriate as the priority is ensuring her safety and comfort first.

4. The mental health team is determining treatment options for a male patient experiencing psychotic symptoms. Which question(s) should the team answer to determine whether a community outpatient or inpatient setting is most appropriate? Select all that apply.

• A. Is the patient expressing suicidal thoughts?
• B. Does the patient have experiences with either community or inpatient mental healthcare facilities?
• C. Does the patient require a therapeutic environment to support the management of psychotic symptoms?
• D. Is the patient experiencing delusions or hallucinations?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To determine whether a community outpatient or inpatient setting is most appropriate for a patient experiencing psychotic symptoms, it is crucial to consider if the patient has had experiences with either community or inpatient mental healthcare facilities. This helps assess the familiarity and comfort level of the patient in those settings, aiding in decision-making regarding the level of care needed. Choice A, addressing suicidal thoughts, is important for risk assessment and safety planning but does not directly help in determining the setting appropriateness between community outpatient or inpatient care. Choice C, about the need for a therapeutic environment, is significant but does not specifically assist in deciding between outpatient or inpatient care. Choice D, related to delusions or hallucinations, is relevant in assessing the symptomatology but does not directly guide the choice between community outpatient or inpatient care.

5. A client who is known to abuse drugs is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to a client who is exhibiting benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms?

• A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• B. Perphenazine (Trilafon)
• C. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
• D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is the correct choice for managing benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms. Benzodiazepines are drugs that can lead to physical dependence, and abrupt discontinuation can result in withdrawal symptoms. Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine itself, is often used in a controlled manner to taper off the drug gradually and manage withdrawal symptoms effectively. Choices A, Diphenhydramine, and B, Perphenazine, are not typically used to manage benzodiazepine withdrawal. Choice C, Isocarboxazid, is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used in the treatment of depression and not indicated for benzodiazepine withdrawal.

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