Nursing Elites

1. A client is agitated and physically aggressive. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Calmly inform the client that they will be placed in seclusion if they do not calm down.
• B. Discuss with the client the reasons for their agitation and aggression.
• C. Tell the client that physical aggression is not acceptable and must stop.
• D. Seek assistance from other staff members and follow the facility’s protocol.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a situation where a client is agitated and physically aggressive, the priority for the RN is to ensure the safety of the client and others. Seeking assistance from other staff members is crucial as it allows for a prompt response to manage the situation effectively and according to the facility’s protocol. Choices A, B, and C do not address the immediate need for safety or involve the collaboration of other staff members, which is essential in handling aggressive behaviors in a healthcare setting.

2. A woman brings her 48-year-old husband to the outpatient psychiatric unit and describes his behavior to the admitting nurse. She states that he has been sleepwalking, cannot remember who he is, and exhibits multiple personalities. The nurse knows that these behaviors are often associated with:

• A. Post-traumatic stress disorder.
• B. Panic disorder.
• C. Dissociative identity disorder.
• D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dissociative identity disorder. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is characterized by the presence of two or more distinct personality states or identities, along with memory gaps beyond ordinary forgetfulness. The description of the husband sleepwalking, not recognizing his identity, and exhibiting multiple personalities aligns with the symptoms of DID. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) (Choice A) involves re-experiencing traumatic events, panic disorder (Choice B) is characterized by recurrent panic attacks, and obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) (Choice D) involves obsessions and compulsions. These conditions do not typically present with the specific symptoms described in the scenario.

3. An adolescent with a history of bipolar disorder is hospitalized during a manic episode. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to include in the care plan?

• A. Encourage high levels of physical activity.
• B. Provide a quiet and structured environment.
• C. Engage the client in creative arts activities.
• D. Allow the client to make decisions about their schedule.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may experience heightened energy levels, decreased need for sleep, and racing thoughts. Providing a quiet and structured environment is crucial in managing these symptoms as it helps reduce external stimuli, prevent overstimulation, and promote a sense of calmness. Encouraging high levels of physical activity may exacerbate the manic symptoms by further increasing stimulation and excitement. Engaging the client in creative arts activities might be beneficial during stable periods but may not be the most appropriate intervention during a manic episode. Allowing the client to make decisions about their schedule could potentially lead to impulsivity and poor judgment, which are common characteristics of mania.

4. A male client with known auditory hallucinations begins talking loudly and gesturing wildly while in the unit’s day room. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a PRN sedative.
• B. Sit in the chair next to the client.
• C. Escort the client to his room.
• D. Listen to what the client is saying.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When dealing with a client experiencing auditory hallucinations, it is crucial for the nurse to first listen to what the client is saying. Auditory hallucinations may hold significance to the client, and by actively listening, the nurse can gather information about the content and context of the hallucinations. This information helps the nurse assess the client's current state, emotional responses, and the potential triggers for the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice A) should not be the initial action as it may suppress important information and feelings the client is trying to communicate. Sitting next to the client (Choice B) may not be appropriate without understanding the situation better. Escorting the client to his room (Choice C) may escalate the situation without addressing the underlying cause of the behavior, which can be better understood through active listening.

5. During an admission assessment and interview, which channels of information communication should the healthcare professional be monitoring? Select all that apply.

• A. Auditory
• B. Visual
• C. Written
• D. Tactile

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an admission assessment and interview, healthcare professionals should monitor auditory, visual, and non-verbal cues. Auditory communication involves listening to the patient's spoken words, tone of voice, and any other sounds they make. Visual communication includes observing the patient's facial expressions, body language, and gestures. Written communication, such as forms or notes, may also provide valuable information. Tactile communication pertains to touch, which is not typically utilized during an admission interview setting. While all channels of communication are important, in this context, auditory cues are particularly crucial for gathering verbal information during the assessment process, making choice A the correct answer. Visual cues and written information are also significant but may not be as critical as auditory cues during an interview. Tactile communication is generally not a primary channel used during a standard admission assessment and interview, hence it is not a key focus in this scenario.

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