Nursing Elites

1. A client is agitated and physically aggressive. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Calmly inform the client that they will be placed in seclusion if they do not calm down.
• B. Discuss with the client the reasons for their agitation and aggression.
• C. Tell the client that physical aggression is not acceptable and must stop.
• D. Seek assistance from other staff members and follow the facility’s protocol.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a situation where a client is agitated and physically aggressive, the priority for the RN is to ensure the safety of the client and others. Seeking assistance from other staff members is crucial as it allows for a prompt response to manage the situation effectively and according to the facility’s protocol. Choices A, B, and C do not address the immediate need for safety or involve the collaboration of other staff members, which is essential in handling aggressive behaviors in a healthcare setting.

2. During a group session on anger management, a male adolescent client is fidgety, interrupts peers, and talks about his pets at home. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Allow the client to leave and return in 10 minutes.
• B. Explore the client’s feelings about his pets and home life.
• C. Encourage his peers to help involve him in the activity.
• D. Redirect him by encouraging him to read from the handout.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best nursing action in this scenario is to redirect the client by encouraging him to read from the handout. This approach helps refocus the client's attention on the topic being discussed, which is anger management. Choice A is not appropriate as it may disrupt the group session and does not address the client's behavior. Choice B, while important in understanding the client's background, does not address the immediate disruptive behavior. Choice C involves others to manage the client's behavior instead of direct intervention by the nurse, which may not be effective in this situation.

3. In pediatric mental health, there is a lack of sufficient numbers of community-based resources and providers, resulting in long waiting lists for services. This has resulted in:

• A. Children of color and those in poor economic conditions being underserved
• B. Increased stress in the family unit
• C. Markedly increased funding
• D. Premature termination of services

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Premature termination of services.' The lack of sufficient numbers of community-based resources and providers, along with long waiting lists, can lead to premature termination of services for children in need of mental health support. Choice A, 'Children of color and those in poor economic conditions being underserved,' is not directly related to the consequence mentioned in the question. Choice B, 'Increased stress in the family unit,' while a potential consequence, is not explicitly stated in the question as a direct result of the lack of resources. Choice C, 'Markedly increased funding,' is not a consequence but rather a potential solution to address the lack of resources.

4. A client with Bulimia and depression who is taking phenelzine (Nardil) 90 mg daily is admitted to an acute care hospital for uncontrolled hypertension. What dietary choices should the RN instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Pan-seared catfish.
• B. Pepperoni pizza.
• C. Deep-fried shrimp.
• D. Beef strips with gravy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is taking MAO inhibitors like phenelzine, foods containing tyramine should be avoided. Tyramine-rich foods can interact with MAO inhibitors and lead to a hypertensive crisis. Beef strips with gravy contain tyramine, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C do not contain high levels of tyramine and are not specifically contraindicated with MAO inhibitors.

5. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
• B. Isolate the client from other clients.
• C. Administer a PRN sedative.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best intervention for a male client with schizophrenia displaying echolalia, which is disruptive to others, is for the nurse to escort the client to his room. Echolalia, the constant repetition of others' words, can be disruptive in a communal setting. By guiding the client to a private space like his room, the nurse helps manage the behavior without isolating or medicating the client unnecessarily. Avoiding acknowledging the behavior (Choice A) does not address the issue, isolating the client (Choice B) may exacerbate feelings of exclusion, and administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be reserved for situations where there is imminent risk or severe agitation, not for managing echolalia.

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