Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is exhibiting visual and auditory hallucinations. What should be the RN’s initial intervention?

• A. Instruct the client to ignore the hallucinations.
• B. Encourage the client to describe the hallucinations in detail.
• C. Assess the client’s perception of the hallucinations.
• D. Provide reassurance that the hallucinations are not real.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a client with schizophrenia exhibiting visual and auditory hallucinations is to assess the client’s perception of the hallucinations. This step is crucial as it helps the RN determine the severity of the hallucinations and the best course of action for management and intervention. Instructing the client to ignore the hallucinations (Choice A) may not be effective as the hallucinations may be distressing and overwhelming. Encouraging the client to describe the hallucinations in detail (Choice B) may potentially worsen the symptoms or trigger further distress. Providing reassurance that the hallucinations are not real (Choice D) may not be appropriate as the client may genuinely believe in their reality, and this reassurance may not address the underlying issues causing the hallucinations.

2. The healthcare professional is preparing medications for a client with bipolar disorder and notices that the antipsychotic medication was discontinued several days ago. Which medication should also be discontinued?

• A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
• B. Benztropine (Cogentin)
• C. Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia)
• D. Lithium (Lithotabs)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When an antipsychotic medication is discontinued, medications like Benztropine (Cogentin), which are given to reduce extrapyramidal side effects associated with traditional antipsychotic medications, should also be discontinued. Alprazolam (Xanax) is not directly related to antipsychotic medication use in this context. Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia) is a laxative and not typically indicated for bipolar disorder. Lithium (Lithotabs) is a mood stabilizer commonly used in bipolar disorder, and its discontinuation should be carefully managed under the guidance of a healthcare provider to prevent relapse of symptoms.

3. The nurse accepts a transfer to the mental health unit and understands that the client is distractible and is exhibiting a decreased ability to concentrate. The nurse has only 15 minutes to talk with the client. To develop a treatment plan for this client, which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Motivation for treatment
• B. History of substance use
• C. Medication compliance
• D. Mental status examination

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A mental status examination is the most important assessment for the nurse to obtain in this scenario. It provides a comprehensive view of the client's current cognitive functioning, including their level of alertness, orientation, memory, attention, and thought process. Understanding the client's mental status is crucial for developing an appropriate treatment plan. The other options, such as motivation for treatment, history of substance use, and medication compliance, are important aspects to consider but may not directly address the client's current cognitive state and immediate treatment needs as effectively as a mental status examination.

4. The RN is teaching a client about the initiation of the prescribed abstinence therapy using disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client acknowledge understanding?

• A. Completely abstain from heroin or cocaine use.
• B. Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours prior to the first dose.
• C. Attend monthly meetings of Alcoholics Anonymous.
• D. Admit to others that he is a substance user.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours prior to the first dose." It is essential for the client to understand the importance of abstaining from alcohol for at least 12 hours before starting disulfiram to prevent potential adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because disulfiram is specifically used to deter alcohol consumption, not heroin or cocaine use. Choice C is not directly related to the initiation of disulfiram therapy and attending AA meetings is not a requirement for taking disulfiram. Choice D is irrelevant and unnecessary for the initiation of disulfiram therapy.

5. A female client on a psychiatric unit is sweating profusely while vigorously doing push-ups and then running the length of the corridor several times before crashing into furniture in the sitting room. Picking herself up, she begins to verbally attack other clients. What intervention is most appropriate for the RN to use to manage the client’s behavior?

• A. Assist the client to a safe area to avoid injury.
• B. Establish clear and firm limits with the client.
• C. Offer medication to help calm the client down.
• D. Speak with the client in a calm, non-threatening manner.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client to a safe area is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. This action helps prevent injury to the client and others while allowing for de-escalation in a controlled environment. While establishing clear and firm limits (Choice B) may be necessary in some situations, the immediate priority here is safety. Offering medication (Choice C) should not be the first response unless the situation escalates further and poses a risk to the client or others. Speaking with the client in a calm, non-threatening manner (Choice D) may not be effective when the client is in an agitated state and engaging in risky behavior.

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