Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is exhibiting visual and auditory hallucinations. What should be the RN’s initial intervention?

• A. Instruct the client to ignore the hallucinations.
• B. Encourage the client to describe the hallucinations in detail.
• C. Assess the client’s perception of the hallucinations.
• D. Provide reassurance that the hallucinations are not real.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a client with schizophrenia exhibiting visual and auditory hallucinations is to assess the client’s perception of the hallucinations. This step is crucial as it helps the RN determine the severity of the hallucinations and the best course of action for management and intervention. Instructing the client to ignore the hallucinations (Choice A) may not be effective as the hallucinations may be distressing and overwhelming. Encouraging the client to describe the hallucinations in detail (Choice B) may potentially worsen the symptoms or trigger further distress. Providing reassurance that the hallucinations are not real (Choice D) may not be appropriate as the client may genuinely believe in their reality, and this reassurance may not address the underlying issues causing the hallucinations.

2. A client with a history of substance abuse is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a new illness. Which of the following is the most important to assess upon admission?

• A. History of recent drug use.
• B. Current employment status.
• C. Family history of mental illness.
• D. Recent weight changes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the history of recent drug use is crucial when admitting a client with a history of substance abuse. Understanding recent drug use helps in managing potential withdrawal symptoms, preventing drug interactions with the new treatment, and ensuring appropriate care. Assessing current employment status (choice B) is important for social and financial support but is not as crucial as assessing recent drug use in this scenario. Family history of mental illness (choice C) and recent weight changes (choice D) are also important aspects of assessment but are not as immediate and critical as evaluating recent drug use in a client with a history of substance abuse.

3. A client with Bulimia and depression who is taking phenelzine (Nardil) 90 mg daily is admitted to an acute care hospital for uncontrolled hypertension. What dietary choices should the RN instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Pan-seared catfish.
• B. Pepperoni pizza.
• C. Deep-fried shrimp.
• D. Beef strips with gravy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is taking MAO inhibitors like phenelzine, foods containing tyramine should be avoided. Tyramine-rich foods can interact with MAO inhibitors and lead to a hypertensive crisis. Beef strips with gravy contain tyramine, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C do not contain high levels of tyramine and are not specifically contraindicated with MAO inhibitors.

4. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Decrease in manic episodes.
• B. Improvement in depressive symptoms.
• C. Reduction in anxiety symptoms.
• D. Increased sleep duration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.

5. A female client on a psychiatric unit is sweating profusely while vigorously doing push-ups and then running the length of the corridor several times before crashing into furniture in the sitting room. Picking herself up, she begins to verbally attack other clients. What intervention is most appropriate for the RN to use to manage the client’s behavior?

• A. Assist the client to a safe area to avoid injury.
• B. Establish clear and firm limits with the client.
• C. Offer medication to help calm the client down.
• D. Speak with the client in a calm, non-threatening manner.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client to a safe area is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. This action helps prevent injury to the client and others while allowing for de-escalation in a controlled environment. While establishing clear and firm limits (Choice B) may be necessary in some situations, the immediate priority here is safety. Offering medication (Choice C) should not be the first response unless the situation escalates further and poses a risk to the client or others. Speaking with the client in a calm, non-threatening manner (Choice D) may not be effective when the client is in an agitated state and engaging in risky behavior.

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