Nursing Elites

1. A male client with known auditory hallucinations begins talking loudly and gesturing wildly while in the unit’s day room. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a PRN sedative.
• B. Sit in the chair next to the client.
• C. Escort the client to his room.
• D. Listen to what the client is saying.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When dealing with a client experiencing auditory hallucinations, it is crucial for the nurse to first listen to what the client is saying. Auditory hallucinations may hold significance to the client, and by actively listening, the nurse can gather information about the content and context of the hallucinations. This information helps the nurse assess the client's current state, emotional responses, and the potential triggers for the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice A) should not be the initial action as it may suppress important information and feelings the client is trying to communicate. Sitting next to the client (Choice B) may not be appropriate without understanding the situation better. Escorting the client to his room (Choice C) may escalate the situation without addressing the underlying cause of the behavior, which can be better understood through active listening.

2. A client is being treated for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse educate the client about?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Insomnia
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Insomnia. Insomnia is a common side effect of SSRIs, including those used to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Educating the client about potential side effects like insomnia is crucial for managing expectations and promoting treatment adherence. Weight loss (choice A) is less common with SSRIs and might not be a primary concern for a client with GAD. Increased appetite (choice B) is also less likely with SSRIs. Dry mouth (choice D) is a side effect more commonly associated with other classes of medications, such as anticholinergics, rather than SSRIs.

3. A woman brings her 48-year-old husband to the outpatient psychiatric unit and describes his behavior to the admitting nurse. She states that he has been sleepwalking, cannot remember who he is, and exhibits multiple personalities. The nurse knows that these behaviors are often associated with:

• A. Post-traumatic stress disorder.
• B. Panic disorder.
• C. Dissociative identity disorder.
• D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dissociative identity disorder. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is characterized by the presence of two or more distinct personality states or identities, along with memory gaps beyond ordinary forgetfulness. The description of the husband sleepwalking, not recognizing his identity, and exhibiting multiple personalities aligns with the symptoms of DID. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) (Choice A) involves re-experiencing traumatic events, panic disorder (Choice B) is characterized by recurrent panic attacks, and obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) (Choice D) involves obsessions and compulsions. These conditions do not typically present with the specific symptoms described in the scenario.

4. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is exhibiting negative symptoms such as anhedonia and social withdrawal. Which intervention should be a priority for the nurse?

• A. Encourage participation in group activities.
• B. Administer prescribed antipsychotic medication.
• C. Assist the client in setting realistic goals.
• D. Promote engagement in social interactions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging participation in group activities is a priority intervention for a client with schizophrenia exhibiting negative symptoms like anhedonia and social withdrawal. Group activities provide structured social interactions and can help the client gradually re-engage with others, potentially reducing social withdrawal and improving social skills. Administering antipsychotic medication (Choice B) is essential in managing positive symptoms of schizophrenia such as hallucinations and delusions, not negative symptoms like anhedonia and social withdrawal. While assisting the client in setting realistic goals (Choice C) is important for overall care, addressing social withdrawal and anhedonia is more immediate. Promoting engagement in social interactions (Choice D) is beneficial, but encouraging participation in group activities provides a structured and supportive environment that can specifically target the negative symptoms being exhibited.

5. A client is being treated with a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Constipation and urinary retention.
• B. Increased appetite and weight loss.
• C. Sedation and blurred vision.
• D. Insomnia and dry mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constipation and urinary retention. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are known to have anticholinergic side effects, which include constipation and urinary retention. These side effects occur due to the inhibition of cholinergic receptors, leading to decreased gastrointestinal motility and relaxation of the detrusor muscle in the bladder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight loss, sedation, blurred vision, insomnia, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the use of TCAs. Monitoring for constipation and urinary retention is essential to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety.

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