Nursing Elites

1. A male client with known auditory hallucinations begins talking loudly and gesturing wildly while in the unit’s day room. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a PRN sedative.
• B. Sit in the chair next to the client.
• C. Escort the client to his room.
• D. Listen to what the client is saying.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When dealing with a client experiencing auditory hallucinations, it is crucial for the nurse to first listen to what the client is saying. Auditory hallucinations may hold significance to the client, and by actively listening, the nurse can gather information about the content and context of the hallucinations. This information helps the nurse assess the client's current state, emotional responses, and the potential triggers for the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice A) should not be the initial action as it may suppress important information and feelings the client is trying to communicate. Sitting next to the client (Choice B) may not be appropriate without understanding the situation better. Escorting the client to his room (Choice C) may escalate the situation without addressing the underlying cause of the behavior, which can be better understood through active listening.

2. A male client with schizophrenia tells the RN that he is being watched and that the television is speaking directly to him. Which response by the RN is appropriate?

• A. “The television cannot speak to you.”
• B. “That sounds very frightening for you.”
• C. “You should ignore the television.”
• D. “Why do you think the television is talking to you?”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Option B is the correct response because it acknowledges the client's feelings and demonstrates empathy. By stating that the situation sounds frightening, the RN validates the client's experience without denying or reinforcing the delusion. This approach helps build rapport and trust with the client, which is essential in therapeutic communication. Options A and C are dismissive and may invalidate the client's experience, potentially worsening the trust relationship. Option D is confrontational and may make the client defensive, hindering effective communication and rapport-building.

3. A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.
• B. Hold the medication and refrain from administering additional amounts of the drug.
• C. Record the symptoms as potential signs of lithium toxicity and hold further medication.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms for evaluation before the next administration of the drug.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness in a client being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder may indicate lithium toxicity. The nurse should promptly notify the healthcare provider to ensure immediate medical intervention. The correct action is to prepare for the administration of an antidote if necessary. Holding the medication (Choice B) without immediate intervention could delay necessary treatment. Recording the symptoms as potential signs of lithium toxicity (Choice C) is more appropriate than considering them as normal side effects but does not emphasize the urgency of immediate action. Notifying the healthcare provider before the next administration of the drug (Choice D) may delay urgent intervention required for lithium toxicity.

4. The healthcare professional is preparing medications for a client with bipolar disorder and notices that the antipsychotic medication was discontinued several days ago. Which medication should also be discontinued?

• A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
• B. Benztropine (Cogentin)
• C. Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia)
• D. Lithium (Lithotabs)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When an antipsychotic medication is discontinued, medications like Benztropine (Cogentin), which are given to reduce extrapyramidal side effects associated with traditional antipsychotic medications, should also be discontinued. Alprazolam (Xanax) is not directly related to antipsychotic medication use in this context. Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia) is a laxative and not typically indicated for bipolar disorder. Lithium (Lithotabs) is a mood stabilizer commonly used in bipolar disorder, and its discontinuation should be carefully managed under the guidance of a healthcare provider to prevent relapse of symptoms.

5. The client is being educated by the healthcare provider about starting a prescribed abstinence therapy with disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client understand?

• A. Maintain complete abstinence from alcohol consumption.
• B. Stay alcohol-free for at least 12 hours before the first dose.
• C. Participate in monthly therapy sessions.
• D. Disclose to others that he is receiving disulfiram therapy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Before starting disulfiram therapy (Antabuse), the client must comprehend the need to remain alcohol-free for a minimum of 12 hours. This is crucial to prevent the unpleasant and potentially dangerous reactions that can occur with concurrent alcohol consumption while on disulfiram. Choice A is incorrect because it mentions heroin or cocaine use, which is not the primary focus when initiating disulfiram therapy. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests therapy sessions, which are not specifically required before starting disulfiram. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to disclose disulfiram therapy to others, but rather to adhere to the abstinence requirement.

Similar Questions