Nursing Elites

1. A male client with known auditory hallucinations begins talking loudly and gesturing wildly while in the unit’s day room. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a PRN sedative.
• B. Sit in the chair next to the client.
• C. Escort the client to his room.
• D. Listen to what the client is saying.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When dealing with a client experiencing auditory hallucinations, it is crucial for the nurse to first listen to what the client is saying. Auditory hallucinations may hold significance to the client, and by actively listening, the nurse can gather information about the content and context of the hallucinations. This information helps the nurse assess the client's current state, emotional responses, and the potential triggers for the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice A) should not be the initial action as it may suppress important information and feelings the client is trying to communicate. Sitting next to the client (Choice B) may not be appropriate without understanding the situation better. Escorting the client to his room (Choice C) may escalate the situation without addressing the underlying cause of the behavior, which can be better understood through active listening.

2. A female client, who is wearing dirty clothes and has a foul body odor, comes to the clinic reporting feeling scared because she is being stalked. What action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Assure the client that she will be seen by a healthcare provider today.
• B. Recommend that the client speaks with a social worker.
• C. Ask the client if she feels comfortable sharing why she is being stalked.
• D. Offer the client a safe place to relax before interviewing her.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to offer the client a safe place to relax before interviewing her. The client's disheveled appearance and foul body odor suggest she may be in distress or facing challenging circumstances. By providing her with a safe and comfortable environment to relax, the nurse can help alleviate some of her distress and establish trust. This approach is crucial as the client is already feeling scared due to being stalked, indicating underlying mental health concerns. Assuring the client that she will be seen by a healthcare provider today (choice A) may not address her immediate need for safety and comfort. Recommending she speaks with a social worker (choice B) may be beneficial later but does not address the immediate need for a safe space. Asking the client if she feels comfortable sharing why she is being stalked (choice C) is not appropriate as the priority is ensuring her safety and comfort first.

3. The client is being educated by the healthcare provider about starting a prescribed abstinence therapy with disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client understand?

• A. Maintain complete abstinence from alcohol consumption.
• B. Stay alcohol-free for at least 12 hours before the first dose.
• C. Participate in monthly therapy sessions.
• D. Disclose to others that he is receiving disulfiram therapy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Before starting disulfiram therapy (Antabuse), the client must comprehend the need to remain alcohol-free for a minimum of 12 hours. This is crucial to prevent the unpleasant and potentially dangerous reactions that can occur with concurrent alcohol consumption while on disulfiram. Choice A is incorrect because it mentions heroin or cocaine use, which is not the primary focus when initiating disulfiram therapy. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests therapy sessions, which are not specifically required before starting disulfiram. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to disclose disulfiram therapy to others, but rather to adhere to the abstinence requirement.

4. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

5. A male client with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that he needs to 'make some deals so that he can improve his retirement savings.' Based on this information, which client outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Delay business decisions until his mania subsides.
• B. Identify the feelings associated with his behaviors.
• C. Seek legal counsel when making business decisions.
• D. Describe why he is feeling fearful about his finances.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In individuals with bipolar disorder experiencing mania, impulsivity and poor judgment are common. Delaying business decisions until the mania subsides is crucial to prevent impulsive and potentially harmful financial choices. Choice B, identifying feelings associated with behaviors, may be important but does not directly address the immediate need to prevent risky financial decisions. Seeking legal counsel (Choice C) may be appropriate in some situations but is not the priority in managing acute mania. Describing why he feels fearful about finances (Choice D) is relevant for understanding emotions but does not address the immediate risk of impulsive financial actions during mania.

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