HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important side effect for the LPN/LVN to monitor?
- A. Weight gain.
- B. Sexual dysfunction.
- C. Nausea.
- D. Constipation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sexual dysfunction. When monitoring a client taking fluoxetine (Prozac), the LPN/LVN should prioritize observing for sexual dysfunction. This side effect is crucial to monitor as it can significantly impact the client's quality of life and may affect their adherence to the medication. Weight gain (choice A) is a possible side effect of fluoxetine but is not as critical as sexual dysfunction in terms of monitoring. Nausea (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are common side effects of fluoxetine, but they are generally less concerning compared to the impact of sexual dysfunction on the client's well-being and treatment compliance.
2. A client is admitted to the mental health unit and sits in the corner of the day room. When the nurse begins the admission assessment interview, the client is guarded, suspicious, and resists talking. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Attempt to ask the client simple questions.
- B. Postpone the client interview until the next day.
- C. Ask another nurse to talk with the client.
- D. Document the client's paranoid behavior.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is guarded, suspicious, and resistant to talking, it is important for the nurse to attempt to ask the client simple questions. Simple questions can help build rapport, establish trust, and create a non-threatening environment. This approach may ease the client into more detailed discussions while reducing feelings of suspicion. Postponing the interview may increase the client's anxiety and distrust, while asking another nurse to talk with the client may disrupt continuity of care and the establishment of a therapeutic relationship. Documenting the client's behavior is important for the client's medical record, but it should not be the first action taken in this situation.
3. A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). What should the LPN/LVN include in the teaching plan?
- A. Take the medication with food to avoid nausea.
- B. You may start feeling better within 1 to 2 weeks.
- C. The medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective.
- D. You may experience side effects such as dry mouth or dizziness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Teaching the client that the medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective is crucial as it helps set realistic expectations. While choice A is important to reduce nausea, it is not the most critical information to provide initially. Choice B is incorrect as improvement usually occurs after several weeks of treatment, not within 1 to 2 weeks. Choice D is also relevant, but informing about the full effectiveness of the medication is more important for long-term adherence.
4. What is the best initial action for the nurse to take with a manic depressive male client who becomes loud and verbally aggressive towards a nurse?
- A. Have the staff escort the client to his room.
- B. Tell the client that his behavior will be recorded in his record.
- C. Redirect the client by asking him to engage in a game with peers.
- D. Review the medication record for an antipsychotic drug.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In dealing with a manic depressive client who is being verbally aggressive, the best initial action for the nurse is to redirect the client by engaging him in a more constructive activity, such as playing card games with peers. This approach can help de-escalate the situation, shift the client's focus positively, and provide a distraction from the current behavior. Having the staff escort the client to his room may escalate the situation further. Threatening to record the behavior in his record is not likely to be effective in managing the immediate situation. Reviewing the medication record for an antipsychotic drug is important but would not be the best initial action in this scenario when the client is being verbally aggressive.
5. A client who has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia tells the LPN/LVN, 'I hear voices telling me to hurt myself.' What is the most appropriate nursing action?
- A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices.
- B. Tell the client that the voices will go away with medication.
- C. Monitor the client for signs of self-harm.
- D. Refer the client for a psychiatric evaluation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to refer the client for a psychiatric evaluation. The client's statement indicating hearing voices telling them to hurt themselves is a serious concern and suggests a risk for self-harm. Referring the client for a psychiatric evaluation is crucial for further assessment and intervention by mental health professionals. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the voices may not address the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and does not address the immediate risk. Choice C is not as comprehensive as referring for a psychiatric evaluation, which is necessary in this situation.
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