HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The LPN/LVN observes the client pacing in the hallway and appearing anxious. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Ask the client to sit down and relax.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication.
- C. Encourage the client to talk about what is making him anxious.
- D. Monitor the client for adverse reactions to the medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication is the first action the nurse should take to manage symptoms of anxiety in a client being treated with haloperidol. The priority is to address the client's escalating anxiety and pacing behavior, which can be managed effectively by providing additional antipsychotic medication. Asking the client to sit down and relax (Choice A) may not be effective if the anxiety is due to inadequate medication levels. Encouraging the client to talk about what is making him anxious (Choice C) may not be beneficial in this acute situation and can be considered after addressing the immediate need for symptom management. Monitoring for adverse reactions (Choice D) is important but is not the first action to take when the client is showing signs of increasing anxiety and agitation.
2. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The nurse should include which information in the client's discharge teaching?
- A. This medication can cause physical dependence.
- B. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you notice improvement.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. You may experience sedation as a side effect.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Buspirone takes time to become fully effective, so the client should be informed to expect a gradual improvement in anxiety symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone is not associated with physical dependence. Choice C is not directly related to buspirone but is generally a good practice when taking any medication. Choice D is less common with buspirone compared to other anxiety medications.
3. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
- B. Monitor the client's vital signs.
- C. Place the client on seizure precautions.
- D. Encourage the client to express feelings about withdrawal.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal, the first intervention the nurse should implement is to monitor the client's vital signs. Vital sign monitoring is crucial to assess for any potential complications such as hypertension, tachycardia, fever, or other signs of autonomic hyperactivity. Administering medication like lorazepam (Ativan) would come after assessing the vital signs to determine the need for pharmacological intervention. Placing the client on seizure precautions is important, but assessing vital signs takes precedence to ensure immediate safety. Encouraging the client to express feelings about withdrawal is a supportive intervention but does not address the immediate physiological risk associated with alcohol withdrawal.
4. A client with panic disorder is prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). What is the most important information for the nurse to provide?
- A. You should take this medication at the same time every day.
- B. It may take several weeks for you to feel the full effect.
- C. This medication may cause a significant increase in appetite.
- D. You may experience dizziness, so avoid driving.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. SSRIs like sertraline may take several weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect, so it's important to inform the client to be patient with the treatment. Choice A is not the most crucial information regarding sertraline. Choice C is not a common side effect of sertraline. Choice D is important but not as crucial as informing about the delayed onset of action.
5. During the admission assessment, a female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room. While interviewing the client, the nurse notes a discrepancy between the client's verbal and nonverbal communication. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Pay close attention and document the nonverbal messages
- B. Ask the client's husband to interpret the discrepancy
- C. Ignore the nonverbal behavior and focus on the client's verbal messages
- D. Integrate the verbal and nonverbal messages and interpret them as one
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Noting both verbal and nonverbal cues is crucial to fully understand the client's condition and any potential underlying issues. Verbal communication may not always align with nonverbal cues, which can provide valuable insights into the client's emotional state and concerns. By paying close attention to and documenting the nonverbal messages, the nurse can gather a more comprehensive understanding of the client's situation. Asking the client's husband to interpret the discrepancy may not be appropriate as it could lead to misinterpretation or breach of confidentiality. Ignoring the nonverbal behavior could result in missing essential cues affecting the overall assessment. Integrating both verbal and nonverbal messages helps in forming a holistic view of the client's needs and concerns, enabling better care delivery.
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