Nursing Elites

1. A child is brought to the emergency room with a broken arm. Because of other injuries, the nurse suspects the child may be a victim of abuse. When the nurse tries to give the child an injection, the child's mother becomes very loud and shouts, 'I won't leave my son! Don't you touch him! You'll hurt my child!' What is the best interpretation of the mother's statements? The mother is

• A. regressing to an earlier behavior pattern.
• B. sublimating her anger.
• C. projecting her feelings onto the nurse.
• D. suppressing her fear.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is (C) projecting her feelings onto the nurse. The mother's behavior suggests that she is attributing her own actions or feelings to the nurse, which is a form of projection. Option (A) regressing to an earlier behavior pattern is not the best fit in this context. Option (B) sublimating her anger is not applicable based on the given scenario. Option (D) suppressing her fear cannot be inferred from the provided information.

2. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?

• A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
• D. Drug-induced parkinsonism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.

3. An LPN/LVN is conducting an initial assessment on a client in crisis. When assessing the client's perception of the precipitating event that led to the crisis, the appropriate question to ask is:

• A. With whom do you live?
• B. Who is available to help you?
• C. What leads you to seek help now?
• D. What do you usually do to feel better?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct question to ask when assessing a client's perception of the precipitating event that led to a crisis is 'What leads you to seek help now?' This question directly addresses the client's current situation and triggers that brought them to seek assistance. Choices A and B are more focused on the client's social support system rather than the root cause of the crisis. Choice D addresses coping mechanisms rather than the actual trigger for seeking help.

4. A female client with depression attends a group and states that she sometimes misses her medication appointments because she feels very anxious about riding the bus. Which statement is the nurse's best response?

• A. Can your case manager take you to your appointments?
• B. Take your medication for anxiety before you ride the bus.
• C. Let's talk about what happens when you feel very anxious.
• D. What are some ways that you can cope with your anxiety?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to discuss coping mechanisms for anxiety is a supportive approach that empowers the client to manage their symptoms. Choice A may not address the client's self-management and coping skills. Choice B suggests using anxiety medication before riding the bus, which may not be the most appropriate solution. Choice C acknowledges the anxiety but does not actively involve the client in finding solutions, unlike Choice D which promotes client empowerment and self-efficacy.

5. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The LPN/LVN observes the client pacing in the hallway and appearing anxious. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Ask the client to sit down and relax.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication.
• C. Encourage the client to talk about what is making him anxious.
• D. Monitor the client for adverse reactions to the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication is the first action the nurse should take to manage symptoms of anxiety in a client being treated with haloperidol. The priority is to address the client's escalating anxiety and pacing behavior, which can be managed effectively by providing additional antipsychotic medication. Asking the client to sit down and relax (Choice A) may not be effective if the anxiety is due to inadequate medication levels. Encouraging the client to talk about what is making him anxious (Choice C) may not be beneficial in this acute situation and can be considered after addressing the immediate need for symptom management. Monitoring for adverse reactions (Choice D) is important but is not the first action to take when the client is showing signs of increasing anxiety and agitation.

Similar Questions