a client with ptsd is experiencing flashbacks and nightmares which intervention should the nurse implement first
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Nursing Elites

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Mental Health HESI Practice Questions

1. A client with PTSD is experiencing flashbacks and nightmares. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to talk about the flashbacks is the most appropriate initial intervention for a client with PTSD experiencing flashbacks and nightmares. This intervention helps the client express their feelings, thoughts, and experiences related to the trauma they are going through. It can assist in processing the traumatic events and starting the healing process. Choice B, assisting the client in developing coping strategies, is important but should come after the client has started to verbalize and process their experiences. Choice C, discussing relaxation techniques, may be beneficial later in the treatment process but may not be as effective initially as addressing the traumatic experiences. Choice D, referring the client to a PTSD support group, is also valuable but may not be as immediate as encouraging the client to talk about their flashbacks to begin the therapeutic process.

2. A 27-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric hospital with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, manic phase. She is demanding and active. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients in the manic phase of bipolar disorder require a structured environment with decreased stimuli to help manage their symptoms. Providing a structured environment with little stimuli (D) can help reduce the risk of escalating behaviors. Scheduling noncompetitive activities that can be carried out alone (A) is more appropriate than group activities as excessive stimuli should be avoided. Monitoring decision-making processes (B) is important due to impulsivity in manic phases. Encouraging the client to identify feelings of anger (C) is not the priority in managing manic symptoms, as it is more often associated with depression than bipolar disorder.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The LPN/LVN observes the client pacing in the hallway and appearing anxious. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication is the first action the nurse should take to manage symptoms of anxiety in a client being treated with haloperidol. The priority is to address the client's escalating anxiety and pacing behavior, which can be managed effectively by providing additional antipsychotic medication. Asking the client to sit down and relax (Choice A) may not be effective if the anxiety is due to inadequate medication levels. Encouraging the client to talk about what is making him anxious (Choice C) may not be beneficial in this acute situation and can be considered after addressing the immediate need for symptom management. Monitoring for adverse reactions (Choice D) is important but is not the first action to take when the client is showing signs of increasing anxiety and agitation.

4. A female client with schizophrenia tells the nurse that she believes her brain is controlled by the CIA. The nurse recognizes this as which type of delusion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persecutory delusion. Persecutory delusions involve beliefs of being conspired against, watched, or harassed by others, which is a common symptom in schizophrenia. In this scenario, the client's belief that her brain is controlled by the CIA aligns with persecutory delusions as she feels targeted or manipulated by an external entity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Somatic delusions involve false beliefs about one's body functions or sensations, paranoid delusions involve irrational suspicions and mistrust of others, and grandiose delusions involve exaggerated beliefs of one's importance or abilities.

5. In the described scenario, a manic client threatens a nurse with physical violence after being told they cannot have a stripper perform. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, where the manic client becomes verbally abusive and threatens physical violence, the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to escort the client to her room with assistance. This action helps ensure the safety of both the client and the nurse, while also providing a controlled environment that can help de-escalate the situation. Choices A and B do not address the immediate safety concerns presented by the client's behavior. Choice D, revoking smoking privileges, is not directly related to the client's current behavior and does not address the threat of violence.

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