HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A 22-year-old male client is admitted to the emergency center following a suicide attempt. His records reveal that this is his third suicide attempt in the past two years. He is conscious, but does not respond to verbal commands for treatment. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to prepare the client for gastric lavage?
- A. He ingested the drug 3 hours prior to admission to the emergency center.
- B. The family reports that he took an entire bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol).
- C. He is unresponsive to instructions and is unable to cooperate with emetic therapy.
- D. Those with repeated suicide attempts desire punishment to relieve their guilt.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client's unresponsiveness to instructions and inability to cooperate with emetic therapy would make it challenging to implement such therapy effectively. In such cases, gastric lavage may be necessary to remove the ingested substance. Choices A and B are important considerations in treatment planning but do not directly indicate the need for gastric lavage. Choice D is incorrect as medical treatments should never be used as punitive measures but rather for therapeutic purposes.
2. The nurse should hold the next scheduled dose of a client's haloperidol (Haldol) based on which assessment finding(s)?
- A. Dizziness when standing.
- B. Shuffling gait and hand tremors.
- C. Urinary retention.
- D. Fever of 102°F.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A fever (D) may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially fatal complication of antipsychotics. The healthcare provider should be contacted before administering the next dose of Haldol. Dizziness when standing (A), shuffling gait and hand tremors (B), and urinary retention (C) are all adverse effects of Haldol that, while concerning, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential severity of NMS indicated by a fever.
3. A homeless person who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is admitted to the mental health unit. Which laboratory finding obtained on admission is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone level
- B. Elevated liver function profile
- C. Increased white blood cell count
- D. Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone level. Hyperthyroidism causes an increased level of serum thyroid hormones (T3 and T4), which inhibit the release of TSH. In this case, a decreased TSH level can indicate hyperthyroidism, which can present with manic behavior. Elevated liver function profile (B) is not directly related to the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Increased white blood cell count (C) typically indicates an infection or inflammation, not directly related to the manic phase. Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels (D) may suggest anemia but are not as crucial in the context of a manic phase of bipolar disorder.
4. A male client with borderline personality disorder is manipulative and consistently attempts to violate unit rules. What is the best approach for the nurse to take?
- A. Enforce unit rules consistently with all clients.
- B. Ignore the manipulative behaviors to avoid confrontation.
- C. Provide the client with special privileges to avoid conflict.
- D. Confront the client directly about his behavior.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct approach for the nurse to take when dealing with a male client with borderline personality disorder who is manipulative and consistently attempts to violate unit rules is to enforce unit rules consistently with all clients. By maintaining consistency in enforcing rules, the nurse establishes clear boundaries and provides structure, which are essential for managing manipulative behavior in clients with borderline personality disorder. Ignoring the manipulative behaviors (Choice B) may lead to the reinforcement of negative behaviors. Providing the client with special privileges (Choice C) can enable further manipulation and is not recommended. Confronting the client directly about his behavior (Choice D) may escalate the situation and is less effective than consistent rule enforcement.
5. A male client with schizophrenia tells the nurse that the voices he hears are saying, 'You must kill yourself.' To assist the client in coping with these thoughts, which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Tell yourself that the voices are unreasonable.'
- B. Exercise when you hear the voices.'
- C. Talk to someone when you hear the voices.'
- D. The voices aren't real, so ignore them.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should teach the client to use self-talk to disprove the voices. Although exercising may be helpful, the client's concrete thinking may make it difficult to understand this suggestion. Clients with schizophrenia have difficulty initiating interaction with others. Auditory hallucinations are often relentless, so it is difficult to ignore them.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access