HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A 22-year-old male client is admitted to the emergency center following a suicide attempt. His records reveal that this is his third suicide attempt in the past two years. He is conscious, but does not respond to verbal commands for treatment. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to prepare the client for gastric lavage?
- A. He ingested the drug 3 hours prior to admission to the emergency center.
- B. The family reports that he took an entire bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol).
- C. He is unresponsive to instructions and is unable to cooperate with emetic therapy.
- D. Those with repeated suicide attempts desire punishment to relieve their guilt.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client's unresponsiveness to instructions and inability to cooperate with emetic therapy would make it challenging to implement such therapy effectively. In such cases, gastric lavage may be necessary to remove the ingested substance. Choices A and B are important considerations in treatment planning but do not directly indicate the need for gastric lavage. Choice D is incorrect as medical treatments should never be used as punitive measures but rather for therapeutic purposes.
2. A male client approaches the nurse with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, 'My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out!' The nurse recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?
- A. Denial
- B. Projection
- C. Rationalization
- D. Splitting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Projection. In this scenario, the client is projecting his own feelings of anger and selfishness onto his roommate. Projection is a defense mechanism where individuals attribute their own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, and motives to another person. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Denial is refusing to acknowledge an aspect of reality or experience. Rationalization is providing logical-sounding reasons to justify unacceptable behaviors or feelings. Splitting is seeing individuals as all good or all bad, with no middle ground.
3. A client with anorexia nervosa is being treated in an inpatient unit. Which intervention is a priority for the nurse?
- A. Encourage the client to exercise to build muscle mass.
- B. Provide liquid supplements between meals.
- C. Allow the client to choose their own meals.
- D. Monitor the client's weight daily.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring the client's weight daily is a priority intervention for a nurse caring for a client with anorexia nervosa. Weight monitoring is crucial in assessing the client's progress and adjusting treatment as necessary to prevent complications such as refeeding syndrome, electrolyte imbalances, and cardiac issues. Encouraging exercise (Choice A) can exacerbate the client's unhealthy relationship with food and body image. Providing liquid supplements (Choice B) is important but may not be the priority over monitoring weight. Allowing the client to choose their own meals (Choice C) may not be suitable initially as they may make unhealthy choices or avoid meals altogether.
4. The nurse should hold the next scheduled dose of a client's haloperidol (Haldol) based on which assessment finding(s)?
- A. Dizziness when standing.
- B. Shuffling gait and hand tremors.
- C. Urinary retention.
- D. Fever of 102°F.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A fever (D) may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially fatal complication of antipsychotics. The healthcare provider should be contacted before administering the next dose of Haldol. Dizziness when standing (A), shuffling gait and hand tremors (B), and urinary retention (C) are all adverse effects of Haldol that, while concerning, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential severity of NMS indicated by a fever.
5. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). What is the most important laboratory test for the LPN/LVN to monitor?
- A. White blood cell count.
- B. Liver function tests.
- C. Blood glucose levels.
- D. Platelet count.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important laboratory test for an LPN/LVN to monitor for a client with schizophrenia being treated with clozapine is the white blood cell count. Clozapine treatment is associated with a risk of agranulocytosis, a severe drop in white blood cells, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring the white blood cell count regularly helps to detect this adverse effect early. Liver function tests (Choice B) are important to monitor with some antipsychotic medications but are not the most crucial for clozapine. Blood glucose levels (Choice C) are more relevant for monitoring in clients on medications like atypical antipsychotics that can cause metabolic side effects. Platelet count (Choice D) is not typically affected by clozapine therapy and is not the most important test to monitor in this case.
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