HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. The nurse is palpating the right upper hypochondriac region of the abdomen of a client. What organ lies underneath this area?
- A. Duodenum
- B. Gastric pylorus
- C. Liver
- D. Spleen
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Liver. The liver is located in the right upper hypochondriac region of the abdomen. The duodenum (Choice A) is located in the right upper quadrant but not directly underneath the right upper hypochondriac region. The gastric pylorus (Choice B) is part of the stomach and is located more centrally in the abdomen. The spleen (Choice D) is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, not underneath the right upper hypochondriac region.
2. Which organ lies retroperitoneally?
- A. Kidneys
- B. Testicles
- C. Urinary bladder
- D. Pancreas
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Kidneys. The kidneys are located retroperitoneally, behind the peritoneum, providing structural protection and maintaining a stable position within the abdominal cavity. This location helps protect them from external physical trauma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testicles, urinary bladder, and pancreas are not located retroperitoneally. Testicles are located in the scrotum, the urinary bladder is located in the pelvis, and the pancreas is located in the upper abdomen, not retroperitoneally.
3. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia.
- B. Hyponatremia.
- C. Hypocalcemia.
- D. Hypokalemia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.
4. A client begins taking an antidepressant drug during the second day of hospitalization. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care while the client is taking the antidepressant?
- A. Appetite
- B. Mood
- C. Withdrawal
- D. Energy level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the client's mood is essential when starting an antidepressant to assess for any changes or adverse effects related to the medication. Changes in mood can indicate the effectiveness of the antidepressant or potential side effects. Assessing appetite (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as monitoring mood in this context. Withdrawal symptoms (Choice C) are more relevant when discontinuing antidepressants rather than starting them. Energy level (Choice D) can be influenced by various factors and may not directly reflect the client's response to the antidepressant.
5. A client with a diagnosis of anemia is being discharged with a prescription for ferrous sulfate. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Take the medication with milk to enhance absorption
- B. Expect stools to be dark in color
- C. Take the medication before bedtime
- D. Avoid foods high in vitamin C
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Expect stools to be dark in color.' Dark stools are a common side effect of iron supplementation due to the unabsorbed iron, and this is not a cause for concern. Choice A is incorrect because taking iron with milk can decrease its absorption due to calcium binding. Choice C is incorrect as there are no specific recommendations to take ferrous sulfate before bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as vitamin C actually enhances iron absorption and should not be avoided.
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