adult health 2 exam 1 Adult Health 2 Exam 1 - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Exam 1

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). Which laboratory value is most important to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the phenytoin level is crucial to ensure it is within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Monitoring sodium level is important in clients receiving lithium, not phenytoin. Hemoglobin level and white blood cell count are not directly related to phenytoin therapy monitoring.

2. A client with a diagnosis of anemia is being discharged with a prescription for ferrous sulfate. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Expect stools to be dark in color.' Dark stools are a common side effect of iron supplementation due to the unabsorbed iron, and this is not a cause for concern. Choice A is incorrect because taking iron with milk can decrease its absorption due to calcium binding. Choice C is incorrect as there are no specific recommendations to take ferrous sulfate before bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as vitamin C actually enhances iron absorption and should not be avoided.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with cirrhosis who has developed ascites. What is the most important intervention to include in the care plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer diuretics as prescribed. Diuretics are often prescribed to help manage fluid accumulation in ascites, which is a common complication of cirrhosis. Restricting sodium intake (Choice A) is essential in managing ascites, but administering diuretics takes precedence in the care plan. Encouraging high-protein meals (Choice B) and increasing fluid intake (Choice C) are not the primary interventions for managing ascites in cirrhosis.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with an intravenous infusion of normal saline. The client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to discontinue the IV infusion (Choice C). Pain and swelling at the IV site can indicate infiltration or phlebitis, which are serious complications that require immediate action. Slowing the rate of infusion (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue and can potentially worsen the condition. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevating the affected arm (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; discontinuing the infusion takes precedence to prevent further harm.

5. The healthcare provider reviews the laboratory results of a client whose serum pH is 7.38. What does this value imply about the client's homeostasis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pH of 7.38 falls within the normal range (7.35-7.45), indicating that the client’s acid-base balance is adequately maintained. Choices A and B are incorrect as alkalosis and acidosis refer to abnormal pH levels. Choice D is incorrect as a pH of 7.38 within the normal range is compatible with life.

Similar Questions

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