adult health 2 exam 1 Adult Health 2 Exam 1 - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Exam 1

1. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed antibiotics. What should the nurse inform the client about antibiotic therapy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Completing the full course of antibiotics is crucial to fully eradicate the infection and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Informing the client about the importance of finishing the prescribed course helps in ensuring the effectiveness of the treatment and reduces the risk of recurrence. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics do not generally interfere with oral contraceptive effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because drowsiness is not a common side effect of antibiotics. Choice C is incorrect because while some antibiotics may need to be taken with meals, it is not a universal rule for all antibiotics.

2. The nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with a high glucose content, the risk of hypoglycemia is significant due to sudden increases in insulin release in response to the glucose load. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia such as shakiness, sweating, palpitations, and confusion. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is not typically a complication of TPN as the high glucose content is more likely to cause hypoglycemia. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are electrolyte imbalances that can occur in clients receiving TPN, but hypoglycemia is the more common and immediate concern that the nurse should monitor for.

3. The nurse is monitoring a client's intravenous infusion and observes that the venipuncture site is cool to the touch, swollen, and the infusion rate is slower than the prescribed rate. What is the most likely cause of this finding?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An infiltrated IV occurs when fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing coolness, swelling, and a slow infusion rate. Choice A is incorrect because a rapid solution rate does not typically cause these specific symptoms. Choice B, phlebitis, presents with redness, warmth, and tenderness along the vein, not coolness. Choice C, infection, usually manifests with redness, warmth, and possibly purulent drainage, not coolness and swelling.

4. A client is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Vitamin K can decrease the effectiveness of warfarin, so it is essential for clients on warfarin therapy to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, so choice A is incorrect. Choices C and D are unrelated to the dietary restrictions needed for clients taking warfarin and are therefore incorrect.

5. A client with a leg fracture reports increased pain and swelling. What should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased pain and swelling in a fracture could indicate compartment syndrome, a serious condition requiring urgent care. Compartment syndrome is characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to compromised blood flow and potential tissue damage. Deep vein thrombosis is less likely in this scenario as the symptoms are more indicative of compartment syndrome. Wound infection would typically present with localized signs of infection at the wound site, such as redness, warmth, and purulent drainage, rather than diffuse pain and swelling.

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