adult health 2 exam 1 Adult Health 2 Exam 1 - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Exam 1

1. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.

2. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed antibiotics. What should the nurse inform the client about antibiotic therapy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Completing the full course of antibiotics is crucial to fully eradicate the infection and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Informing the client about the importance of finishing the prescribed course helps in ensuring the effectiveness of the treatment and reduces the risk of recurrence. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics do not generally interfere with oral contraceptive effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because drowsiness is not a common side effect of antibiotics. Choice C is incorrect because while some antibiotics may need to be taken with meals, it is not a universal rule for all antibiotics.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with an intravenous infusion of normal saline. The client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to discontinue the IV infusion (Choice C). Pain and swelling at the IV site can indicate infiltration or phlebitis, which are serious complications that require immediate action. Slowing the rate of infusion (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue and can potentially worsen the condition. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevating the affected arm (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; discontinuing the infusion takes precedence to prevent further harm.

4. The nurse is monitoring a client who started taking a new medication for rheumatoid arthritis. What is the most important aspect to monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client starts a new medication for rheumatoid arthritis, it is crucial to monitor all necessary aspects based on the specific medication prescribed. Different medications can have varying side effects and impacts on different organ systems. Monitoring all relevant parameters ensures the early detection of any adverse effects and helps to maintain the client's safety. While monitoring for signs of gastrointestinal bleeding, liver function tests, and renal function tests are all important in certain situations, the priority is to conduct comprehensive monitoring based on the medication's known effects.

5. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.

Similar Questions

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