adult health 2 exam 1 Adult Health 2 Exam 1 - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Exam 1

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure (CHF). Which intervention is most important to include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Restrict fluid intake. Fluid restriction is crucial in the management of congestive heart failure (CHF) as it helps prevent fluid overload, which can exacerbate CHF symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Providing a high-sodium diet would worsen fluid retention and increase the workload of the heart. Encouraging vigorous exercise can strain the heart further in CHF patients. Administering bronchodilators is not the priority intervention for CHF.

2. The nurse is teaching a client about the administration of a subcutaneous injection. Which site is most appropriate for this type of injection?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The abdomen is a common site for subcutaneous injections due to its accessibility and ample subcutaneous tissue. Subcutaneous injections are typically given in areas with a layer of fat between the skin and muscle, such as the abdomen, to allow for slow and consistent absorption of the medication. The deltoid muscle is more appropriate for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous. The dorsogluteal muscle and ventrogluteal muscle are also more suited for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous.

3. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed antibiotics. What should the nurse inform the client about antibiotic therapy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Completing the full course of antibiotics is crucial to fully eradicate the infection and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Informing the client about the importance of finishing the prescribed course helps in ensuring the effectiveness of the treatment and reduces the risk of recurrence. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics do not generally interfere with oral contraceptive effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because drowsiness is not a common side effect of antibiotics. Choice C is incorrect because while some antibiotics may need to be taken with meals, it is not a universal rule for all antibiotics.

4. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge after a major surgical procedure. What is the priority instruction to include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Providing comprehensive discharge instructions covering signs of infection to monitor for, pain management techniques, activity restrictions, and safety measures is crucial after a major surgical procedure. Each of these components plays a vital role in the client's recovery and well-being. It is important for the client to understand how to identify signs of infection, manage pain effectively, and adhere to activity restrictions to prevent complications and ensure a smooth recovery process. While each instruction is important on its own, combining all aspects into the discharge teaching ensures that the client has a holistic understanding of their post-operative care, empowering them to take charge of their health and know when to seek further assistance if needed. Choices A, B, and C are essential components of discharge teaching and should all be included to provide the client with comprehensive care instructions.

5. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.

Similar Questions

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