Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. What is the most important action to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTI)?

• A. Perform hand hygiene before and after handling the catheter
• B. Change the catheter every 72 hours
• C. Apply antibiotic ointment at the insertion site
• D. Irrigate the catheter daily

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing hand hygiene before and after handling the catheter is crucial in preventing catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTI). This practice helps minimize the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms into the urinary tract. Changing the catheter every 72 hours is not recommended unless clinically indicated as it can increase the risk of infection. Applying antibiotic ointment at the insertion site is not a standard practice and may contribute to antibiotic resistance. Irrigating the catheter daily is unnecessary and can introduce pathogens into the urinary tract, increasing the risk of infection.

2. During the assessment of a client who has suffered a stroke, what finding would indicate a complication?

• A. Difficulty swallowing
• B. A slight headache
• C. High blood pressure
• D. Muscle weakness on one side

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) can indicate complications such as aspiration risk, which is common after a stroke due to impaired swallowing reflexes. It poses a serious threat to the client's respiratory system. Options B, C, and D are less likely to indicate immediate complications post-stroke. A slight headache is a common complaint and may not necessarily indicate a complication. High blood pressure is a known risk factor for strokes but may not be an immediate post-stroke complication unless it is severely elevated. Muscle weakness on one side is a common sign of stroke but may not directly indicate a new complication.

3. What intervention should the nurse implement for a client experiencing an anxiety attack?

• A. Teach deep breathing exercises
• B. Provide a quiet environment
• C. Administer anxiolytic medication as prescribed
• D. Engage the client in conversation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering prescribed anxiolytic medication is the most appropriate intervention for a client experiencing an anxiety attack. Anxiolytic medications can provide rapid relief from severe anxiety symptoms. Teaching deep breathing exercises (choice A) can be helpful for managing mild anxiety but may not be sufficient during an acute anxiety attack. Providing a quiet environment (choice B) is beneficial to reduce stimuli, but it may not address the immediate distress of an ongoing anxiety attack. Engaging the client in conversation (choice D) is generally not recommended during an anxiety attack as it can potentially exacerbate the symptoms by increasing stimulation.

4. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
• B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
• C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
• D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of appendicitis. Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Right upper quadrant pain
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point
• D. Hematuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point is a classic sign of appendicitis. This symptom is due to irritation of the peritoneum when pressure is released during palpation. Right upper quadrant pain (Choice A) is more commonly associated with gallbladder issues. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur in various abdominal conditions and are not specific to appendicitis. Hematuria (Choice D) is the presence of blood in the urine and is not a typical symptom of appendicitis.

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