Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly
• B. Provide a complex carbohydrate snack
• C. Administer 50% dextrose intravenously
• D. Give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client with type 1 diabetes experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. In a hypoglycemic state, the priority is to quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is beneficial after the initial treatment of hypoglycemia to prevent recurrence. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is a more invasive intervention typically done in a hospital setting for severe cases.

2. The client with newly diagnosed peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which instruction should be included?

• A. Increase the intake of spicy foods
• B. Avoid the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
• C. Drink coffee in moderation
• D. Eat large meals at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when teaching a client with newly diagnosed PUD about lifestyle modifications is to avoid the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs can exacerbate peptic ulcer disease by causing further irritation of the gastric mucosa. Increasing the intake of spicy foods (choice A) can aggravate the condition by irritating the stomach lining. Drinking coffee (choice C) can stimulate gastric acid secretion, which may worsen the symptoms of PUD. Eating large meals at bedtime (choice D) can also exacerbate PUD by increasing gastric acid production when the body is at rest, potentially leading to discomfort and symptoms.

3. What is the most important action to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs) in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter?

• A. Irrigate the catheter daily.
• B. Change the catheter every 72 hours.
• C. Apply antibiotic ointment at the insertion site.
• D. Ensure the catheter bag is always below bladder level.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial action to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs) in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is to ensure that the catheter bag is always below bladder level. This positioning helps prevent backflow of urine, reducing the risk of CAUTIs. Irrigating the catheter daily (Choice A) is unnecessary and can introduce pathogens. Changing the catheter every 72 hours (Choice B) is not recommended unless clinically indicated to prevent introducing new pathogens. Applying antibiotic ointment at the insertion site (Choice C) is not the most important action to prevent CAUTIs; proper hygiene and maintaining a closed system are more critical.

4. The nurse assigns an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to feed a client who is at risk for aspiration. What action should the nurse take to ensure safety?

• A. Inform the UAP that suction is available at the bedside.
• B. Instruct the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes.
• C. Observe the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding.
• D. Ask the UAP about previous experience in performing this skill.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding is crucial to ensuring the client's safety, especially when there is a risk of aspiration. This hands-on observation allows the nurse to assess whether the UAP is competent in handling the feeding procedure safely. Informing the UAP about suction availability (Choice A) is important but does not directly assess the UAP's ability during feeding. Instructing the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes (Choice B) focuses on reactive measures rather than proactive supervision. Asking about previous experience (Choice D) does not provide real-time information on the UAP's current competency in handling the specific feeding task for the at-risk client.

5. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?

• A. Decreased sexual libido
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Quickening
• D. Nocturia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.

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