Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which position should the nurse avoid?

• A. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees
• B. Positioning the client in the prone position
• C. Placing the client in a lateral recumbent position
• D. Elevating the client's legs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Positioning the client in the prone position. Placing the client in the prone position should be avoided in a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) as it can further raise ICP. The prone position can hinder venous return and increase pressure within the cranial vault, potentially worsening the client's condition. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees helps promote venous drainage and reduce ICP. Placing the client in a lateral recumbent position can also assist in reducing ICP by optimizing cerebral perfusion. Elevating the client's legs can help improve venous return and maintain adequate cerebral blood flow, making it a suitable positioning intervention for managing increased ICP.

2. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?

• A. Sebaceous and sweat glands
• B. Melanin and keratin
• C. Sensory receptors and hair follicles
• D. Adipose cells and blood vessels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.

3. When counting a client's radial pulse, the nurse notes the pulse is weak and irregular. To record the most accurate heart rate, what should the nurse do?

• A. Recheck the radial pulse in thirty minutes
• B. Palpate the radial pulse for thirty seconds and double the rate
• C. Count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds
• D. Compare the radial pulse rate bilaterally and record the higher rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds. The apical pulse is more accurate, especially when peripheral pulses are weak or irregular. Counting the apical pulse for a full minute provides a more precise heart rate measurement. Option A is incorrect because waiting for thirty minutes is unnecessary and could delay potential interventions. Option B is incorrect because doubling the radial pulse rate may not provide an accurate representation of the heart rate. Option D is incorrect because comparing radial pulses bilaterally does not give the most accurate heart rate measurement; the apical pulse is preferred in this situation.

4. A client with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
• B. Provide a complex carbohydrate snack.
• C. Administer 50% dextrose intravenously.
• D. Give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate as the priority intervention in a client experiencing hypoglycemia. This helps quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is not the priority in an acute hypoglycemic episode where immediate action is needed. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the client is unable to take anything by mouth.

5. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed antibiotics. What should the nurse inform the client about antibiotic therapy?

• A. It may interfere with oral contraceptive effectiveness
• B. It can cause drowsiness
• C. It should be taken with meals
• D. Completing the full course is crucial

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Completing the full course of antibiotics is crucial to fully eradicate the infection and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Informing the client about the importance of finishing the prescribed course helps in ensuring the effectiveness of the treatment and reduces the risk of recurrence. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics do not generally interfere with oral contraceptive effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because drowsiness is not a common side effect of antibiotics. Choice C is incorrect because while some antibiotics may need to be taken with meals, it is not a universal rule for all antibiotics.

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