HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. The nurse observes that a post-operative client's surgical wound has reddened edges and is oozing. What is the appropriate nursing action?
- A. Apply an antibiotic ointment
- B. Clean the wound with sterile saline
- C. Cover the wound with a sterile dressing
- D. Notify the surgeon immediately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action when a post-operative client's surgical wound has reddened edges and is oozing is to notify the surgeon immediately. Reddened, oozing wound edges can indicate an infection that requires prompt evaluation and intervention by the surgical team. Applying an antibiotic ointment (Choice A) without proper assessment and guidance can be inappropriate. Cleaning the wound with sterile saline (Choice B) and covering it with a sterile dressing (Choice C) may not address the potential infection adequately, and the client may require more specialized care that the surgeon can provide.
2. A 9-year-old is receiving vancomycin 400 mg IV every 6 hours for a methicillin-resistant (Beta-lactam-resistant) Staphylococci aureus (MRSA) infection. The medication is diluted in a 100 mL bag of saline with instructions to infuse over one and a half hours. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?
- A. 50
- B. 67
- C. 57
- D. 70
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate for vancomycin, you need to divide the total volume by the total time of infusion. In this case, the total volume is 100 mL, and the total time is 1.5 hours. Therefore, 100 mL รท 1.5 hours = 67 mL/hour. This means the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver vancomycin at a rate of 67 mL/hour. Choice A (50) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C (57) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information. Choice D (70) is incorrect as it does not correspond to the correct infusion rate calculation.
3. A client is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which instruction about insulin administration should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Rotate injection sites to prevent tissue damage
- B. Inject insulin into the same site to increase absorption
- C. Only use insulin pens
- D. Mix different types of insulin in the same syringe
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to only use insulin pens. This is because insulin pens provide a convenient and accurate way to administer insulin. Rotating injection sites is important to prevent tissue damage and promote consistent insulin absorption, making choice A incorrect. Injecting insulin into the same site can lead to lipodystrophy and is not recommended, making choice B incorrect. Mixing different types of insulin in the same syringe can alter their action profiles and is generally not recommended, making choice D incorrect.
4. A client begins taking an antidepressant drug during the second day of hospitalization. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care while the client is taking the antidepressant?
- A. Appetite
- B. Mood
- C. Withdrawal
- D. Energy level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the client's mood is essential when starting an antidepressant to assess for any changes or adverse effects related to the medication. Changes in mood can indicate the effectiveness of the antidepressant or potential side effects. Assessing appetite (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as monitoring mood in this context. Withdrawal symptoms (Choice C) are more relevant when discontinuing antidepressants rather than starting them. Energy level (Choice D) can be influenced by various factors and may not directly reflect the client's response to the antidepressant.
5. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depression. After 2 weeks of antidepressant medication therapy, the nurse notices the client has more energy, is giving her belongings away to her visitors, and is in an overall better mood. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Tell the client to keep her belongings because she will need them at discharge
- B. Ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself
- C. Reassure the client that the antidepressant drugs are apparently effective
- D. Support the client by telling her what wonderful progress she is making
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself. Sudden mood improvements and behavioral changes, like giving away belongings, can be concerning signs of possible suicidal ideation. Assessing for suicidal thoughts is crucial to ensure the client's safety. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential risk of harm or assess for suicidal ideation. Choice C is incorrect because simply reassuring the client about the effectiveness of antidepressants does not address the immediate concern of suicidal ideation. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on praising progress without addressing the potential risk of harm the client may pose to herself.
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