the nurse observes that a post operative clients surgical wound has reddened edges and is oozing what is the appropriate nursing action
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 1 Final Exam

1. The nurse observes that a post-operative client's surgical wound has reddened edges and is oozing. What is the appropriate nursing action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action when a post-operative client's surgical wound has reddened edges and is oozing is to notify the surgeon immediately. Reddened, oozing wound edges can indicate an infection that requires prompt evaluation and intervention by the surgical team. Applying an antibiotic ointment (Choice A) without proper assessment and guidance can be inappropriate. Cleaning the wound with sterile saline (Choice B) and covering it with a sterile dressing (Choice C) may not address the potential infection adequately, and the client may require more specialized care that the surgeon can provide.

2. A client with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate as the priority intervention in a client experiencing hypoglycemia. This helps quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is not the priority in an acute hypoglycemic episode where immediate action is needed. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the client is unable to take anything by mouth.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder who has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important teaching point?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct teaching point is to instruct the client to report any increase in suicidal thoughts. This is crucial because SSRIs like fluoxetine can initially increase suicidal ideation, especially at the beginning of treatment. Choice A is corrected to emphasize that fluoxetine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is unrelated as it pertains more to MAOIs than SSRIs like fluoxetine. Choice D is inaccurate as antidepressants like fluoxetine may take weeks to show significant improvement in symptoms, not within 24 hours.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of appendicitis. Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point is a classic sign of appendicitis. This symptom is due to irritation of the peritoneum when pressure is released during palpation. Right upper quadrant pain (Choice A) is more commonly associated with gallbladder issues. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur in various abdominal conditions and are not specific to appendicitis. Hematuria (Choice D) is the presence of blood in the urine and is not a typical symptom of appendicitis.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which clinical sign is most indicative of DVT?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Redness and warmth over the affected area are classic signs of inflammation, which commonly occur in deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to the obstruction of blood flow. These symptoms result from the body's inflammatory response to the blood clot. Choices B, C, and D are less indicative of DVT. Decreased peripheral pulses may occur in arterial insufficiency rather than DVT. Cyanosis of the toes indicates decreased oxygenation and is more characteristic of arterial issues. Muscle cramps in the calf are nonspecific and can be caused by various conditions, not solely DVT.

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