HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. A client is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound in the morning and has been instructed to fast overnight. The client asks the nurse why fasting is necessary. What is the best response?
- A. It helps reduce the production of intestinal gases.
- B. It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.
- C. It prevents the risk of aspiration during the procedure.
- D. It is a standard procedure for all surgical interventions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.' Fasting before an abdominal ultrasound is essential to empty the stomach, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal organs. This improves the quality of the imaging and enhances diagnostic accuracy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because reducing intestinal gases, preventing aspiration, and being a standard procedure for surgical interventions are not the primary reasons for fasting before an abdominal ultrasound.
2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is learning to administer insulin. What is the best site for the nurse to recommend for insulin injection?
- A. Abdomen
- B. Thigh
- C. Upper arm
- D. Buttock
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the abdomen. The abdomen is the recommended site for insulin injection due to its faster absorption rate compared to other sites. Insulin injected into the abdomen is absorbed more quickly, leading to better glycemic control. The thigh and upper arm are also common sites for insulin injection, but they have slower absorption rates than the abdomen. The buttock is not a preferred site for insulin injection due to inconsistent absorption and potential risk of injecting into muscle instead of fatty tissue.
3. What is the most important information for the nurse to provide to a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder who is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?
- A. Take the medication with food
- B. Avoid foods high in tyramine
- C. Report any thoughts of self-harm immediately
- D. Expect to see improvement within 24 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report any thoughts of self-harm immediately.' When starting an SSRI, clients should be informed to report any thoughts of self-harm promptly. SSRIs can initially increase suicidal ideation, especially in the early stages of treatment. This information is crucial for the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking the medication with food, avoiding foods high in tyramine, and expecting immediate improvement within 24 hours are not the most critical pieces of information for a client starting on an SSRI.
4. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge following a myocardial infarction. What should the nurse prioritize in the discharge instructions?
- A. Warning signs of a potential heart attack
- B. Importance of medication adherence
- C. Follow-up appointment details
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When preparing a client for discharge after a myocardial infarction, the nurse should prioritize providing comprehensive instructions. This includes educating the client about warning signs of a potential heart attack to recognize symptoms early, stressing the importance of medication adherence for optimal recovery and prevention of further cardiac events, and ensuring understanding of follow-up appointment details for ongoing monitoring and care. All these aspects are crucial in preventing complications and promoting the client's well-being. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' as the correct answer is the most appropriate choice. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of a holistic discharge plan for a client post-myocardial infarction.
5. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia.
- B. Hyponatremia.
- C. Hypocalcemia.
- D. Hypokalemia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.
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