Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound in the morning and has been instructed to fast overnight. The client asks the nurse why fasting is necessary. What is the best response?

• A. It helps reduce the production of intestinal gases.
• B. It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.
• C. It prevents the risk of aspiration during the procedure.
• D. It is a standard procedure for all surgical interventions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.' Fasting before an abdominal ultrasound is essential to empty the stomach, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal organs. This improves the quality of the imaging and enhances diagnostic accuracy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because reducing intestinal gases, preventing aspiration, and being a standard procedure for surgical interventions are not the primary reasons for fasting before an abdominal ultrasound.

2. The nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with a high glucose content, the risk of hypoglycemia is significant due to sudden increases in insulin release in response to the glucose load. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia such as shakiness, sweating, palpitations, and confusion. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is not typically a complication of TPN as the high glucose content is more likely to cause hypoglycemia. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are electrolyte imbalances that can occur in clients receiving TPN, but hypoglycemia is the more common and immediate concern that the nurse should monitor for.

3. A client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Increases joint lubrication
• B. Reduces inflammation by suppressing the immune system
• C. Enhances bone density
• D. Stimulates cartilage regeneration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Methotrexate is an immunosuppressant that works by suppressing the immune system, thereby reducing inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis. Methotrexate does not directly increase joint lubrication (Choice A) as its primary action is on the immune system. Choices C and D are incorrect since methotrexate does not enhance bone density or stimulate cartilage regeneration. It is crucial for healthcare providers to understand the mechanism of action of medications to provide safe and effective care to patients.

4. A client is admitted to the hospital with second and third degree burns to the face and neck. How should the nurse best position the client to maximize function of the neck and face and prevent contracture?

• A. The neck extended backward using a rolled towel behind the neck
• B. Prone position using pillows to support both arms outward from the torso
• C. Side-lying position using pillows to support the abdomen and back
• D. The neck forward using pillows under the head and sandbags on both sides

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After sustaining burns to the face and neck, positioning is crucial to maintain functional posture, reduce pain, and prevent contractures. Placing the neck forward using pillows under the head and sandbags on both sides is the best option in this scenario. This position helps prevent neck and facial contractures, allowing for optimal function and healing. Choices A, B, and C do not adequately address the specific needs of a client with burns to the face and neck. Choice A could potentially exacerbate neck contractures, Choice B focuses on arm support rather than neck and face positioning, and Choice C does not directly address the needs of the burned face and neck, making them less effective in preventing contractures in these critical areas.

5. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?

• A. Sebaceous and sweat glands
• B. Melanin and keratin
• C. Sensory receptors and hair follicles
• D. Adipose cells and blood vessels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.

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