a client is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound in the morning and has been instructed to fast overnight the client asks the nurse why fasting is ne
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Final Exam

1. A client is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound in the morning and has been instructed to fast overnight. The client asks the nurse why fasting is necessary. What is the best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.' Fasting before an abdominal ultrasound is essential to empty the stomach, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal organs. This improves the quality of the imaging and enhances diagnostic accuracy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because reducing intestinal gases, preventing aspiration, and being a standard procedure for surgical interventions are not the primary reasons for fasting before an abdominal ultrasound.

2. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.

3. Based on the documentation in the medical record, which action should the nurse implement next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the mother breastfeeding her infant. This action is essential to ensure that the infant is feeding well and to assess maternal-infant bonding. Administering the rubella vaccine subcutaneously (Option A) is not the immediate priority in this scenario as assessing breastfeeding is more crucial. Calling the nursery for the infant's blood type result (Option C) is premature and not the next appropriate step, as it does not address the immediate needs of the newborn. Administering Vicodin one tablet for pain (Option D) is not indicated without further assessment or indication of pain, making it an incorrect choice at this time.

4. The nurse is assessing an older resident with a history of Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy and identifies a distended bladder. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prompt and appropriate management of urinary retention prevents complications like infection and bladder damage.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with an intravenous infusion of normal saline. The client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to discontinue the IV infusion (Choice C). Pain and swelling at the IV site can indicate infiltration or phlebitis, which are serious complications that require immediate action. Slowing the rate of infusion (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue and can potentially worsen the condition. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevating the affected arm (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; discontinuing the infusion takes precedence to prevent further harm.

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