a client is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound in the morning and has been instructed to fast overnight the client asks the nurse why fasting is ne
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Final Exam

1. A client is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound in the morning and has been instructed to fast overnight. The client asks the nurse why fasting is necessary. What is the best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.' Fasting before an abdominal ultrasound is essential to empty the stomach, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal organs. This improves the quality of the imaging and enhances diagnostic accuracy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because reducing intestinal gases, preventing aspiration, and being a standard procedure for surgical interventions are not the primary reasons for fasting before an abdominal ultrasound.

2. The nurse observes that a male client's urinary catheter (Foley) drainage tubing is secured with tape to his abdomen and then attached to the bed frame. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to secure the tubing to the client's gown instead of his abdomen. Securing the tubing to the client's abdomen can cause discomfort, trauma to the urethra, and increase the risk of infection. Attaching the drainage bag to the bed frame can lead to tension on the catheter, increasing the risk of dislodgement or trauma. Raising the bed does not address the issue of incorrect tubing securing. Observing the appearance of urine is important but secondary to ensuring proper tubing attachment.

3. The client has chronic renal failure. What dietary modification is most important for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Limiting potassium-rich foods is crucial in chronic renal failure to prevent hyperkalemia, which can lead to cardiac complications. Excessive protein intake can increase the workload on the kidneys and may result in the accumulation of uremic toxins. Increasing sodium intake is generally discouraged in chronic renal failure due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention. Encouraging dairy products may not be suitable for all clients with chronic renal failure, as they are a significant source of phosphorus, which needs to be limited in renal failure to prevent mineral imbalances.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B. Hyponatremia.' Hydrochlorothiazide can lead to electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia, due to its diuretic effect. This potential adverse effect should be closely monitored in patients taking HCTZ. Choice A, hyperkalemia, is less likely to occur with HCTZ as it tends to cause hypokalemia. Choice C, bradycardia, is not a common adverse effect of HCTZ. Choice D, hyperglycemia, is also less commonly associated with HCTZ use compared to hyponatremia.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To increase red blood cell production.' Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells to treat anemia associated with CKD. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy is primarily used to address anemia by increasing the production of red blood cells rather than lowering blood pressure, improving appetite, or reducing fluid retention.

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