Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound in the morning and has been instructed to fast overnight. The client asks the nurse why fasting is necessary. What is the best response?

• A. It helps reduce the production of intestinal gases.
• B. It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.
• C. It prevents the risk of aspiration during the procedure.
• D. It is a standard procedure for all surgical interventions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.' Fasting before an abdominal ultrasound is essential to empty the stomach, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal organs. This improves the quality of the imaging and enhances diagnostic accuracy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because reducing intestinal gases, preventing aspiration, and being a standard procedure for surgical interventions are not the primary reasons for fasting before an abdominal ultrasound.

2. During a bed bath, the nurse observes that a client's IV site is red and swollen. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Discontinue the IV under physician's guidance
• B. Apply a warm compress to the site
• C. Notify the physician
• D. Document the appearance of the site and continue the bath

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action when a nurse observes a red and swollen IV site during a bed bath is to notify the physician. This is crucial because prompt reporting allows for immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Discontinuing the IV (Choice A) should only be done under the physician's guidance to avoid any adverse effects and ensure proper care. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen the situation if the cause is an infection or infiltration. Documenting the site's appearance and continuing the bath (Choice D) without immediate action might delay necessary treatment, leading to potential complications.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with congestive heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Sodium level
• B. Potassium level
• C. Calcium level
• D. Chloride level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring the potassium level is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium level (choice A) is not typically affected by furosemide. Calcium level (choice C) and chloride level (choice D) are also not the primary focus of monitoring when a client is on furosemide for heart failure.

4. During a health screening, a client's blood pressure reads 160/100 mm Hg. What should the nurse recommend?

• A. Schedule a follow-up appointment
• B. Start making immediate dietary changes
• C. Begin an exercise program
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A follow-up with a healthcare provider is necessary to assess and manage the newly identified hypertension. While dietary changes and exercise are important for managing high blood pressure, immediate lifestyle modifications without further evaluation by a healthcare provider may not be safe or effective. Option A is the most appropriate initial step to ensure proper assessment and management of the client's blood pressure. Therefore, choices B and C are incorrect in this scenario. Option D is also incorrect because not all options should be implemented without proper medical guidance.

5. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. Avoid walking as much as possible
• B. Report any signs of bleeding to the healthcare provider
• C. Take aspirin for additional pain relief
• D. Wear compression stockings at night

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reporting signs of bleeding is essential while on anticoagulant therapy to prevent complications.

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