HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1
1. A client has a prescription for a Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a Lumbar Laminectomy. What information should the nurse reinforce about the action of this adjuvant pain modality?
- A. Mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve conduction for severe pain
- B. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of an electrical stimulus
- C. An infusion of medication in the spinal canal will block pain perception
- D. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus on the pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. TENS units work by delivering small electrical impulses through the skin. These impulses are thought to close the 'gates of nerve conduction,' which can help in managing severe pain. Choice B is incorrect because the dulled pain perception does not occur in the cerebral cortex by the TENS unit. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different method of pain management involving medication in the spinal canal. Choice D is incorrect because TENS does not work by distracting the client's focus on pain, but rather by altering pain perception through electrical impulses.
2. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. What action is best for the nurse to take?
- A. Ask the client why the bath was refused
- B. Ask family members to encourage the client to bathe
- C. Explain the importance of good hygiene to the client
- D. Reschedule the bath for the following day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ask the client why the bath was refused. Understanding the client's reasons for refusal can guide appropriate interventions, respecting client autonomy while addressing any underlying issues. Choice B is not the best course of action as involving family members may not address the client's specific concerns. Choice C, while important, may not directly address the immediate refusal to bathe. Choice D does not address the underlying reasons for the refusal and may not lead to a resolution.
3. The practical nurse is preparing to administer a prescription for cefazolin (Kefzol) 600 mg IM every six hours. The available vial is labeled, 'Cefazolin (Kefzol) 1 gram,' and the instructions for reconstitution state, 'For IM use add 2 ml sterile water for injection. Total volume after reconstitution = 2.5 ml.' When reconstituted, how many milligrams are in each milliliter of solution?
- A. 400 mg/mL
- B. 500 mg/mL
- C. 450 mg/mL
- D. 350 mg/mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of cefazolin solution is calculated by dividing the total amount of drug (600 mg) by the total volume after reconstitution (2.5 mL). This gives 600 mg / 2.5 mL = 240 mg/mL. However, the question asks for the concentration in each milliliter of solution after reconstitution, so we need to consider the final volume of 2.5 mL. Therefore, 240 mg/mL * 2.5 mL = 600 mg, which means each milliliter contains 240 mg of cefazolin. Therefore, after reconstitution, there are 400 mg of cefazolin in each milliliter of solution. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the concentration after reconstitution.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Decreased urine output
- B. Weight loss of 1 kg
- C. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg
- D. Presence of a bruit over the fistula
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. An elevated blood pressure in clients with chronic kidney disease undergoing hemodialysis can indicate fluid overload or poor dialysis efficacy and should be reported immediately. This finding could lead to complications such as heart failure or pulmonary edema. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in this situation. Decreased urine output may be expected due to the kidney disease, a weight loss of 1 kg is within an acceptable range, and the presence of a bruit over the fistula is a common finding in clients undergoing hemodialysis and does not require immediate reporting.
5. A client with a diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). What is the primary goal of this medication?
- A. To reduce the risk of bleeding.
- B. To lower blood pressure.
- C. To stimulate red blood cell production.
- D. To increase appetite.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To stimulate red blood cell production.' Epoetin alfa, such as Epogen, is used to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease. This medication helps increase hemoglobin levels and reduce the need for blood transfusions. Option A, 'To reduce the risk of bleeding,' is incorrect as epoetin alfa does not directly impact bleeding risk. Option B, 'To lower blood pressure,' is incorrect as epoetin alfa is not indicated for blood pressure management. Option D, 'To increase appetite,' is also incorrect as the primary goal of epoetin alfa is related to improving anemia by boosting red blood cell production.
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