Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site is the preferred location for this injection?

• A. Deltoid muscle.
• B. Vastus lateralis muscle.
• C. Ventrogluteal muscle.
• D. Dorsogluteal muscle.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections in adults due to its muscle mass and lower risk of nerve injury. The deltoid muscle is more commonly used for vaccines in adults, the vastus lateralis muscle is preferred in infants and young children, and the dorsogluteal muscle is associated with a higher risk of nerve injury and is no longer recommended for intramuscular injections.

2. A client is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables
• B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K
• C. Increase intake of foods rich in vitamin C
• D. Limit intake of dairy products

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Vitamin K can decrease the effectiveness of warfarin, so it is essential for clients on warfarin therapy to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, so choice A is incorrect. Choices C and D are unrelated to the dietary restrictions needed for clients taking warfarin and are therefore incorrect.

3. A client with a diagnosis of chronic heart failure is receiving digoxin. What is the most important assessment before administering this medication?

• A. Check blood pressure.
• B. Assess heart rate.
• C. Monitor respiratory rate.
• D. Measure oxygen saturation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the heart rate. Before administering digoxin, it is essential to evaluate the heart rate as digoxin can cause bradycardia. While checking blood pressure, monitoring respiratory rate, and measuring oxygen saturation are important assessments in the care of a client with chronic heart failure, assessing the heart rate is particularly critical due to the medication's potential impact on heart rhythm.

4. When reconstituted, how many milligrams are in each milliliter of solution?

• A. 300 mg/mL
• B. 350 mg/mL
• C. 450 mg/mL
• D. 400 mg/mL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of the cefazolin solution is 400 mg/mL. This calculation is derived by dividing the total milligrams in the vial (1000 mg) by the total volume after reconstitution (2.5 mL). Therefore, each milliliter of the solution contains 400 mg of cefazolin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the information provided.

5. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being discharged with a prescription for epoetin alfa (Epogen). What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
• C. Expect to feel better immediately.
• D. Avoid foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your blood pressure regularly.' Epoetin alfa (Epogen) can lead to hypertension as a side effect, so it is essential for clients with CKD to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Choice A is incorrect because epoetin alfa does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because the client should not expect immediate improvement upon starting the medication. Choice D is incorrect because while monitoring potassium intake is important in CKD, the question specifically pertains to epoetin alfa and its side effects, not potassium intake.

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