HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. When providing care for a client receiving palliative care for terminal cancer, what should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Pain management
- B. Arranging family visits
- C. Discussing advance directives
- D. Providing nutritional support
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When caring for a client receiving palliative care for terminal cancer, the nurse should prioritize pain management. Effective pain management is crucial in enhancing the quality of life for terminally ill patients. While arranging family visits and discussing advance directives are important aspects of care, pain management takes precedence in providing comfort and alleviating suffering. Nutritional support is essential but may be of lesser priority compared to pain management in this context.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease is being evaluated for dialysis. Which laboratory value would be most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Hemoglobin 9.5 g/dL
- B. Potassium 6.2 mEq/L
- C. Creatinine 3.5 mg/dL
- D. BUN 50 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium 6.2 mEq/L. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys struggle to regulate potassium levels, leading to hyperkalemia. A potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L is dangerously high and can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Hemoglobin of 9.5 g/dL may indicate anemia, which is common in chronic kidney disease but is not immediately life-threatening. Creatinine and BUN levels are markers of kidney function; although elevated levels indicate kidney impairment, they are not acutely life-threatening like severe hyperkalemia.
3. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?
- A. Decreased sexual libido
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Quickening
- D. Nocturia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.
4. During a routine prenatal visit, a nurse measures a client’s fundal height at 26 weeks gestation. What should the fundal height be?
- A. Approximately 26 cm
- B. Between 24 to 28 cm
- C. Above the umbilicus by two finger widths
- D. Below the xiphoid process
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Between 24 to 28 cm.' Fundal height is expected to be approximately equal to the weeks of gestation, so at 26 weeks, the fundal height should typically range between 24 to 28 cm. Choice A is incorrect because fundal height is not an exact measurement of gestational age in centimeters. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a general description above the umbilicus, which is not specific to 26 weeks gestation. Choice D is incorrect as the fundal height would not reach below the xiphoid process at 26 weeks gestation.
5. The client with diabetes is being taught about the importance of foot care. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. ''I will inspect my feet daily for any cuts or blisters.''
- B. ''I will soak my feet in warm water every day.''
- C. ''I will wear shoes that fit properly to avoid injury.''
- D. ''I will avoid walking barefoot to protect my feet.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because soaking feet daily can lead to skin breakdown, making it inappropriate for clients with diabetes. Inspecting feet daily for cuts or blisters (Choice A), wearing properly fitting shoes (Choice C), and avoiding walking barefoot (Choice D) are all appropriate measures to maintain foot health for clients with diabetes.
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