Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which symptom should prompt the nurse to notify the healthcare provider?

• A. Weight gain.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Nervousness and tremors.
• D. Fatigue.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Nervousness and tremors.' In a client with hypothyroidism prescribed levothyroxine, the development of nervousness and tremors may indicate hyperthyroidism, which can result from excessive dosing of levothyroxine. Therefore, the nurse should promptly notify the healthcare provider to adjust the medication dosage. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, bradycardia, and fatigue are more commonly associated with hypothyroidism itself, indicating that the levothyroxine therapy may not be effective enough, rather than being signs of excessive dosing.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which clinical sign is most indicative of DVT?

• A. Redness and warmth over the affected area
• B. Decreased peripheral pulses
• C. Cyanosis of the toes
• D. Muscle cramps in the calf

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Redness and warmth over the affected area are classic signs of inflammation, which commonly occur in deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to the obstruction of blood flow. These symptoms result from the body's inflammatory response to the blood clot. Choices B, C, and D are less indicative of DVT. Decreased peripheral pulses may occur in arterial insufficiency rather than DVT. Cyanosis of the toes indicates decreased oxygenation and is more characteristic of arterial issues. Muscle cramps in the calf are nonspecific and can be caused by various conditions, not solely DVT.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is struggling to breathe. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate according to the prescription
• B. Encourage the client to perform pursed-lip breathing
• C. Prepare for emergency intubation
• D. Assess the client's oxygen saturation and breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for a nurse when a client with COPD is struggling to breathe is to assess the client's oxygen saturation and breath sounds. This initial assessment is crucial in determining the severity of the client's condition and the appropriate intervention. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without proper assessment can potentially be harmful, as COPD clients have a risk of retaining carbon dioxide. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing can be beneficial but should come after assessing the client's current status. Emergency intubation is a drastic measure and should only be considered after a comprehensive assessment indicates the need for it.

4. In a community health setting, which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

• A. 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners
• B. 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship
• C. 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales and smokes drugs
• D. 45-year-old who has received two blood transfusions in the past 6 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Substance abuse, particularly using shared inhalation equipment like needles and pipes for drug inhalation, significantly increases the risk of contracting HIV. Choice A, the 17-year-old with multiple sexual partners, poses a risk of HIV transmission through sexual contact, but it is lower compared to the direct risk associated with sharing drug paraphernalia. Choice B, the 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship, is at lower risk since being in a monogamous relationship reduces exposure to HIV. Choice D, the 45-year-old who received blood transfusions, is also at lower risk as blood transfusions are now screened for HIV, decreasing the likelihood of transmission through this route.

5. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.

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