HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. A client with a diagnosis of hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which symptom should prompt the nurse to notify the healthcare provider?
- A. Weight gain.
- B. Bradycardia.
- C. Nervousness and tremors.
- D. Fatigue.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Nervousness and tremors.' In a client with hypothyroidism prescribed levothyroxine, the development of nervousness and tremors may indicate hyperthyroidism, which can result from excessive dosing of levothyroxine. Therefore, the nurse should promptly notify the healthcare provider to adjust the medication dosage. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, bradycardia, and fatigue are more commonly associated with hypothyroidism itself, indicating that the levothyroxine therapy may not be effective enough, rather than being signs of excessive dosing.
2. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
- B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
- C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
- D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.
3. When taking blood pressure at the brachial artery, the nurse should place the client's arm in which position?
- A. Slightly above the level of the heart
- B. At the level of the heart
- C. At a level of comfort for the client
- D. Below the level of the heart
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When taking blood pressure at the brachial artery, it is crucial to place the client's arm at the level of the heart to ensure accurate measurement. Placing the arm above or below the heart level can lead to incorrect readings. Option A, placing the arm slightly above the heart level, would result in falsely lower blood pressure readings as gravity would assist in a lower value. Option C, placing the arm at a level of comfort for the client, may not align with the standardized technique required for accurate blood pressure assessment. Option D, placing the arm below the level of the heart, would likely yield falsely higher blood pressure readings due to increased hydrostatic pressure pushing the blood against gravity.
4. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
- A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
- B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
- C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
- D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.
5. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. What action is best for the nurse to take?
- A. Ask the client why the bath was refused
- B. Ask family members to encourage the client to bathe
- C. Explain the importance of good hygiene to the client
- D. Reschedule the bath for the following day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ask the client why the bath was refused. Understanding the client's reasons for refusal can guide appropriate interventions, respecting client autonomy while addressing any underlying issues. Choice B is not the best course of action as involving family members may not address the client's specific concerns. Choice C, while important, may not directly address the immediate refusal to bathe. Choice D does not address the underlying reasons for the refusal and may not lead to a resolution.
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