Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being discharged with a prescription for epoetin alfa (Epogen). What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
• C. Expect to feel better immediately.
• D. Avoid foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your blood pressure regularly.' Epoetin alfa (Epogen) can lead to hypertension as a side effect, so it is essential for clients with CKD to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Choice A is incorrect because epoetin alfa does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because the client should not expect immediate improvement upon starting the medication. Choice D is incorrect because while monitoring potassium intake is important in CKD, the question specifically pertains to epoetin alfa and its side effects, not potassium intake.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with cirrhosis who has developed ascites. What is the most important intervention to include in the care plan?

• A. Restrict sodium intake
• B. Encourage high-protein meals
• C. Increase fluid intake
• D. Administer diuretics as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer diuretics as prescribed. Diuretics are often prescribed to help manage fluid accumulation in ascites, which is a common complication of cirrhosis. Restricting sodium intake (Choice A) is essential in managing ascites, but administering diuretics takes precedence in the care plan. Encouraging high-protein meals (Choice B) and increasing fluid intake (Choice C) are not the primary interventions for managing ascites in cirrhosis.

3. After receiving a report, the nurse receives the laboratory values for four clients. Which client requires the nurse’s immediate intervention? The client who is...

• A. Short of breath after a shower and has a hemoglobin of 8 grams
• B. Bleeding from a finger stick and has a prothrombin time of 30 seconds
• C. Febrile and has a WBC count of 14,000/mm3
• D. Trembling and has a glucose level of 50 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences such as altered mental status, seizures, and even coma if not promptly addressed. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. Shortness of breath with a hemoglobin of 8 grams may indicate anemia but does not require immediate intervention. Bleeding from a finger stick with a prothrombin time of 30 seconds may suggest clotting issues, which are important but not as immediately critical as hypoglycemia. Being febrile with an elevated WBC count could indicate infection, which is concerning but not as urgently critical as hypoglycemia.

4. The healthcare provider plans to assess a newborn and check the infant's Moro reflex. What is the healthcare provider evaluating?

• A. Neurological integrity
• B. Renal functioning
• C. Thermoregulation
• D. Respiratory adequacy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Moro reflex is an instinctive response observed in newborns, indicating their neurological integrity. This reflex is evaluated by eliciting a startle response in the infant, involving the sudden extension and abduction of the limbs, followed by their retraction. This assessment helps in determining the proper functioning of the infant's nervous system and brain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not relate to the evaluation of the Moro reflex. Renal functioning pertains to kidney function, thermoregulation refers to temperature control, and respiratory adequacy involves assessing breathing and oxygenation levels, none of which are evaluated through the Moro reflex.

5. A client with heart failure is prescribed a low-sodium diet. The nurse notices the client's meal tray contains high-sodium foods. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Educate the client about the importance of a low-sodium diet
• B. Replace the meal with a low-sodium option
• C. Report the error to the dietary department
• D. Encourage the client to avoid eating the high-sodium foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to replace the high-sodium meal with a low-sodium option. This immediate intervention ensures that the client adheres to the prescribed low-sodium diet, crucial for managing heart failure and preventing fluid retention. Educating the client (Choice A) about the diet is important but not as urgent as ensuring they receive the correct meal. Reporting the error to the dietary department (Choice C) can be done after addressing the immediate issue. Encouraging the client to avoid high-sodium foods (Choice D) is not as effective as replacing the current meal with a suitable alternative.

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