Nursing Elites

1. When counting a client's radial pulse, the nurse notes the pulse is weak and irregular. To record the most accurate heart rate, what should the nurse do?

• A. Recheck the radial pulse in thirty minutes
• B. Palpate the radial pulse for thirty seconds and double the rate
• C. Count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds
• D. Compare the radial pulse rate bilaterally and record the higher rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds. The apical pulse is more accurate, especially when peripheral pulses are weak or irregular. Counting the apical pulse for a full minute provides a more precise heart rate measurement. Option A is incorrect because waiting for thirty minutes is unnecessary and could delay potential interventions. Option B is incorrect because doubling the radial pulse rate may not provide an accurate representation of the heart rate. Option D is incorrect because comparing radial pulses bilaterally does not give the most accurate heart rate measurement; the apical pulse is preferred in this situation.

2. A client's daughter phones the charge nurse to report that the night nurse did not provide good care for her mother. What response should the nurse make?

• A. Explain that all staff are doing their best
• B. Ask for a description of what happened during the night
• C. Tell the daughter to talk to the unit's nurse manager
• D. Reassure the daughter that the mother will get better care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response for the nurse in this situation is to ask for a description of what happened during the night. This allows the nurse to gather specific information about the care provided and address the complaint appropriately. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the concern by stating that all staff are doing their best does not address the specific complaint. Choice C is not the best immediate response as the charge nurse should first gather information before escalating the issue to the nurse manager. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on reassurance without addressing the reported issue.

3. A client with a history of stroke presents with dysphagia. What is the most important nursing intervention to prevent aspiration?

• A. Encourage the client to drink water between meals
• B. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position during meals
• C. Provide the client with thickened liquids
• D. Allow the client to eat quickly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Position the client in a high-Fowler's position during meals. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position (sitting upright at a 90-degree angle) helps reduce the risk of aspiration by ensuring that the airway is protected during swallowing. This position facilitates easier swallowing and decreases the likelihood of food or liquids entering the respiratory tract. Encouraging the client to drink water between meals (choice A) does not directly address the risk of aspiration during meals. Providing thickened liquids (choice C) may be necessary for some patients with dysphagia but is not the most important intervention to prevent aspiration. Allowing the client to eat quickly (choice D) without proper positioning and precautions can increase the risk of aspiration.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Persistent cough
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

5. A client with a diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). What is the primary goal of this medication?

• A. To reduce the risk of bleeding.
• B. To lower blood pressure.
• C. To stimulate red blood cell production.
• D. To increase appetite.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To stimulate red blood cell production.' Epoetin alfa, such as Epogen, is used to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease. This medication helps increase hemoglobin levels and reduce the need for blood transfusions. Option A, 'To reduce the risk of bleeding,' is incorrect as epoetin alfa does not directly impact bleeding risk. Option B, 'To lower blood pressure,' is incorrect as epoetin alfa is not indicated for blood pressure management. Option D, 'To increase appetite,' is also incorrect as the primary goal of epoetin alfa is related to improving anemia by boosting red blood cell production.

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