HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. The nurse is teaching a client with hypertension about lifestyle modifications. Which recommendation is most effective for lowering blood pressure?
- A. Increase intake of red meat
- B. Engage in regular physical activity
- C. Consume a high-sodium diet
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Engaging in regular physical activity is a highly effective recommendation for lowering blood pressure and improving overall cardiovascular health. Regular exercise helps to strengthen the heart, improve blood circulation, and manage weight, all of which contribute to reducing blood pressure levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of red meat can lead to higher saturated fat consumption, which is detrimental to heart health. Consuming a high-sodium diet can exacerbate hypertension by increasing blood pressure. Limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day may lead to dehydration and is not a recommended approach for managing hypertension.
2. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?
- A. Sebaceous and sweat glands
- B. Melanin and keratin
- C. Sensory receptors and hair follicles
- D. Adipose cells and blood vessels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.
3. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
- B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
- C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
- D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.
4. A client with diabetes exhibits a blood sugar of 350 mg/dL. What is the nurse's best action?
- A. Administer insulin as prescribed
- B. Provide a carbohydrate-controlled snack
- C. Encourage physical activity
- D. Recheck the blood sugar
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with diabetes presenting with a blood sugar level of 350 mg/dL, the best action for the nurse is to administer insulin as prescribed. High blood sugar levels can lead to complications like diabetic ketoacidosis, making prompt insulin administration crucial to lower the blood glucose level. Providing a carbohydrate-controlled snack would be inappropriate as it may further elevate blood sugar levels. Encouraging physical activity is not advisable when the blood sugar is significantly high, as exercise can raise blood sugar levels. Rechecking the blood sugar is necessary after administering insulin to monitor the response to treatment.
5. The nurse explains the 2-week dosage prescription of prednisone (Deltasone) to a client who has poison ivy over multiple skin surfaces. What should the nurse emphasize about the dosing schedule?
- A. Decrease the dosage daily as prescribed
- B. Monitor oral temperature daily
- C. Take the prednisone with meals
- D. Return for blood glucose monitoring in one week
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decrease the dosage daily as prescribed.' Tapering the dosage of prednisone is crucial to prevent withdrawal symptoms and minimize the side effects of corticosteroid therapy. Decreasing the dosage gradually over time allows the body to adjust and reduces the risk of adrenal insufficiency. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Monitoring oral temperature daily, taking prednisone with meals, or returning for blood glucose monitoring in one week are not specific to the dosing schedule of prednisone for poison ivy treatment.
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