HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. The practical nurse is preparing to administer a prescription for cefazolin (Kefzol) 600 mg IM every six hours. The available vial is labeled, 'Cefazolin (Kefzol) 1 gram,' and the instructions for reconstitution state, 'For IM use add 2 ml sterile water for injection. Total volume after reconstitution = 2.5 ml.' When reconstituted, how many milligrams are in each milliliter of solution?
- A. 400 mg/mL
- B. 500 mg/mL
- C. 450 mg/mL
- D. 350 mg/mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of cefazolin solution is calculated by dividing the total amount of drug (600 mg) by the total volume after reconstitution (2.5 mL). This gives 600 mg / 2.5 mL = 240 mg/mL. However, the question asks for the concentration in each milliliter of solution after reconstitution, so we need to consider the final volume of 2.5 mL. Therefore, 240 mg/mL * 2.5 mL = 600 mg, which means each milliliter contains 240 mg of cefazolin. Therefore, after reconstitution, there are 400 mg of cefazolin in each milliliter of solution. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the concentration after reconstitution.
2. What intervention should the nurse implement for a client experiencing an anxiety attack?
- A. Teach deep breathing exercises
- B. Provide a quiet environment
- C. Administer anxiolytic medication as prescribed
- D. Engage the client in conversation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering prescribed anxiolytic medication is the most appropriate intervention for a client experiencing an anxiety attack. Anxiolytic medications can provide rapid relief from severe anxiety symptoms. Teaching deep breathing exercises (choice A) can be helpful for managing mild anxiety but may not be sufficient during an acute anxiety attack. Providing a quiet environment (choice B) is beneficial to reduce stimuli, but it may not address the immediate distress of an ongoing anxiety attack. Engaging the client in conversation (choice D) is generally not recommended during an anxiety attack as it can potentially exacerbate the symptoms by increasing stimulation.
3. A hospitalized toddler who is recovering from a sickle cell crisis holds a toy and says 'Mine'. According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, this child's behavior is a demonstration of which developmental stage?
- A. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
- B. Industry vs. Inferiority
- C. Initiative vs. Guilt
- D. Trust vs. Mistrust
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt. In Erikson's theory, toddlers aged 1-3 years are in the Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt stage. During this stage, children begin to assert their independence and control over their environment. The behavior of the hospitalized toddler holding a toy and saying 'Mine' demonstrates the child's developing sense of autonomy and ownership. Choices B, C, and D correspond to different stages in Erikson's theory: Industry vs. Inferiority (school-age children), Initiative vs. Guilt (preschoolers), and Trust vs. Mistrust (infants), respectively, which are not applicable to the behavior described.
4. The nurse is providing care for a client with a draining postoperative wound infected with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which is the most important action for the nurse to take?
- A. Encourage increased oral fluids.
- B. Provide high-protein snacks.
- C. Change the wound dressing.
- D. Administer prescribed antibiotics.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering prescribed antibiotics is crucial in treating MRSA infections. MRSA is a type of bacteria that is resistant to many antibiotics, including methicillin. Therefore, prompt administration of the appropriate antibiotics is essential to target the MRSA infection effectively. Encouraging increased oral fluids (Choice A) and providing high-protein snacks (Choice B) may be beneficial for overall recovery but are not the most important actions in treating an MRSA infection. Changing the wound dressing (Choice C) is important for wound care but does not directly address the infection caused by MRSA.
5. The client is being educated by the nurse about the side effects of prednisone. Which side effect should the client be instructed to report immediately?
- A. Weight gain.
- B. Increased appetite.
- C. Hyperglycemia.
- D. Fever or sore throat.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fever or sore throat. These symptoms should be reported immediately as they could indicate an infection, which can be serious in clients taking prednisone due to its immunosuppressive effects. Choices A and B are common side effects of prednisone but are not typically considered urgent. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is a known side effect of prednisone but is not an immediate concern compared to the potential of an infection signaled by fever or sore throat.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access