Nursing Elites

1. The practical nurse is preparing to administer a prescription for cefazolin (Kefzol) 600 mg IM every six hours. The available vial is labeled, 'Cefazolin (Kefzol) 1 gram,' and the instructions for reconstitution state, 'For IM use add 2 ml sterile water for injection. Total volume after reconstitution = 2.5 ml.' When reconstituted, how many milligrams are in each milliliter of solution?

• A. 400 mg/mL
• B. 500 mg/mL
• C. 450 mg/mL
• D. 350 mg/mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of cefazolin solution is calculated by dividing the total amount of drug (600 mg) by the total volume after reconstitution (2.5 mL). This gives 600 mg / 2.5 mL = 240 mg/mL. However, the question asks for the concentration in each milliliter of solution after reconstitution, so we need to consider the final volume of 2.5 mL. Therefore, 240 mg/mL * 2.5 mL = 600 mg, which means each milliliter contains 240 mg of cefazolin. Therefore, after reconstitution, there are 400 mg of cefazolin in each milliliter of solution. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the concentration after reconstitution.

2. A client begins taking an antidepressant drug during the second day of hospitalization. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care while the client is taking the antidepressant?

• A. Appetite
• B. Mood
• C. Withdrawal
• D. Energy level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the client's mood is essential when starting an antidepressant to assess for any changes or adverse effects related to the medication. Changes in mood can indicate the effectiveness of the antidepressant or potential side effects. Assessing appetite (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as monitoring mood in this context. Withdrawal symptoms (Choice C) are more relevant when discontinuing antidepressants rather than starting them. Energy level (Choice D) can be influenced by various factors and may not directly reflect the client's response to the antidepressant.

3. During a tonic-clonic seizure, what is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Insert an oral airway
• B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
• C. Restrain the client's arms and legs
• D. Protect the client's head from injury

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse's priority intervention is to protect the client's head from injury. This is crucial to prevent trauma, as head injuries can be severe during a seizure. Inserting an oral airway may cause injury or obstruction during the seizure and is not recommended. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula can be done after ensuring the client's safety. Restraining the client's arms and legs is also not recommended as it can lead to further injury or harm.

4. The nurse is monitoring a client with an IV infusion in the left antecubital fossa. The site is warm, red, and without swelling. What conclusion should the nurse draw from these findings?

• A. The IV fluids are infusing into the subcutaneous tissues
• B. The infusion pump is functioning properly
• C. The insertion date should be verified and the IV discontinued
• D. The site is inflamed and should be reported

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Warmth and redness at the IV site without swelling indicate a localized reaction, which is common and does not necessarily indicate infiltration of IV fluids into the subcutaneous tissues. The absence of swelling suggests that the IV is correctly placed. Therefore, the nurse should conclude that the infusion pump is functioning properly. Choice A is incorrect as warmth and redness alone do not indicate subcutaneous infiltration. Choice C is incorrect as discontinuing the IV solely based on warmth and redness without swelling is not necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the absence of swelling signifies a localized reaction rather than inflammation requiring immediate reporting.

5. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis. What is the most critical treatment to initiate?

• A. Administer sodium bicarbonate IV
• B. Start an insulin drip
• C. Monitor glucose and ketone levels
• D. Provide oral hydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of diabetic ketoacidosis, the most critical treatment to initiate is starting an insulin drip. Insulin therapy is crucial for reducing blood glucose levels by promoting glucose uptake in cells and inhibiting the production of ketones. Administering sodium bicarbonate IV is generally not recommended as it may lower the pH further and potentially worsen the condition. While monitoring glucose and ketone levels is important for assessing the response to treatment, initiating insulin therapy takes precedence. Providing oral hydration alone is insufficient to manage the metabolic derangements seen in diabetic ketoacidosis.

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